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boyakko [2]
2 years ago
10

How do you graph y=47x

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gennadij [26K]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Start at the origin, then graph the point (1, 47) and connect the line.

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope: 47

y-intercept: 0

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Geoffrey measures the width of his bedroom to determine the largest size bed frame he can have. The wall he plans to place the b
saw5 [17]

Answer:109.8 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
After triangle ACE is dilated by a factor of 6, it has an area of 180 square inches. What was its area before dilation?
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

The area of triangle ACE before dilation is:  30 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that when an object is dilated by a scale factor, it gets reduced, stretched, or remains the same, depending upon the value of the scale factor.

  • If the scale factor > 1, the image is enlarged
  • If the scale factor is between 0 and 1, it gets shrunk
  • If the scale factor = 1, the object and the image are congruent

The length of the image can be determined by multiplying the length of the original point by a certain scale factor.

Given that after triangle ACE is dilated by a factor of 6, it has an area of 180 square inches.

Thus, it means the dilated area is 6 times the area before dilation.

Let x be the pre-dilation area

As the dilated area is 6 times the area before dilation, so

6x = 180

divide both sides by 6

6x/6 = 180/6

x = 30 square inches.

Therefore, the area of triangle ACE before dilation is:  30 square inches

4 0
3 years ago
I dont really want to fail this test again. Please give it your best try
o-na [289]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
select the values that make the inequality h/4 greater than or equal to -1 true then write an equivalent inequality in terms of
jok3333 [9.3K]

Answer:

Values that make it equal:

-4, -3, -1, 0, 4

Written equivalent inequality:

h≥−4

Step by Step for the written inequality:  

h/4 ≥−1

Multiply both sides by 4. Since 4 is positive, the inequality direction remains the same.

h≥−4

I hope this helps you!! :)

3 0
2 years ago
8 divde by 1/6 equals 48 because<br><br>​
nika2105 [10]

Proof:

8\div\frac{1}{6}=\frac{8}{1}\div \frac{1}{6}=\frac{8}{1}\times\frac{6}{1}=\frac{8\times6}{1}=\frac{48}{1}=48 \\

6 0
3 years ago
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