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barxatty [35]
3 years ago
13

Will mark brainliest please help

Mathematics
2 answers:
Westkost [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2x-3 =-4x+3

6x = 6

x = 1

plug 1 into either eq. to see what  "y" you get

2(1) - 3 = -1

so

(1, -1 )

svet-max [94.6K]3 years ago
3 0
The answer is (1,-1)!
Please mark BRAINLIEST!
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Can anyone help ?
Flauer [41]

Answer:

a) 1 / 12

b) 1 / 4

Step-by-step explanation:

The events are independent since they do not affect each other. The total probability of two independent events is the product of the probabilities of the two events.

a) When rolling a die, there are 6 outcomes, the numbers 1 - 6. There is only 1 outcome where you can get a 2. Therefore, the probability of rolling a two is 1/6.

When flipping a coin, there are two ways it can land: heads or tails. And there is one outcome with heads. The probability of getting head would be 1 / 2.

To find the the total, you multiply the probabilities of the two events: 1 / 6 * 1 / 2 = 1 / 12

b) As stated before, when rolling a die, there are 6 outcomes, the numbers 1 - 6. There are 3 outcomes where she can roll an even number: the numbers 2, 4, or 6. So, the probability of rolling an even number is 3 / 6 or 1 / 2.

When flipping a coin, there are two ways it can land: heads or tails. And there is one outcome with tails. The probability of getting tails would be 1 / 2.

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5 0
3 years ago
Nancy has a big chocolate bar shaped like a rectangular prism. It is 15 centimeters long, 14 centimeters wide, and 2 centimeters
Leya [2.2K]

Answer: 420 cm^{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume V of a rectangular prism is given by:

V=(length)(width)(thickness)

If the chocolate bar has the following dimensions:

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width=14 cm

thickness=2 cm

Its volume is:

V=(15 cm)(14 cm)(2 cm)

V=420 cm^{3}

4 0
3 years ago
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