Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
We have the two functions:
And we want to find (f-g)(x).
(f-g)(x) is equivalent to f(x)-g(x).
Therefore:
Simplify:
Therefore:
Answer:
27/6, 4 3/6, or simplified version 4 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
Always convert the mixed numbers into an improper fraction before you solve, this makes it easier to solve.
2 4/6 = 16/6
1 5/6 = 11/6
3 4/6 = 22/6
Now we solve. Remember, you do NOT add the denominator, leave it as 6 not 12. You only add the numerator.
16/6 + 11/6 = 27/6, 4 3/6 or simplified as 4 1/2
22/6 + 5/6 = The same as above.
Answer:
First: 15
Second: 21
Third: 45
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to create the equation we need to represent the evenings with an alebraic term, in thsi case we are going to represent the second evening with an X
Second evening:x
The first night she got 6 fewer calls than the second: Second-6=x-6
The third night she received 3 times the first: 3(first night)=3(x-6)
The equation is First Night plus second night plus third night equals 81.
So the first evening he received 15 calls, the second he received 21 and the third one he received 45.
Is it SV squared? Or times 2
The answers to the questions on how she would use the colored chips are given here:
- writing a new article 6 yellow chips
- designing a computer presentation 10 red chips
<h3>How to solve for the values</h3>
For the first percentage
20 / 100 = x/20
= 20 * 20 = 100x
400 = 100x
divide through by 100
x = 400/100
x = 4
For the second percentage
30/100 = x/20
600 = 100x
x = 600/100
x = 6
For the last
50/100 = x/20
1000 = 100x
x = 10
The proof is that 6 + 4 + 10 still gives us 20
Read more on percentages here: brainly.com/question/24877689
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