Answer:
I think its b but im not sure
Step-by-step explanation:
With some simplification,
cos⁻¹(x) - 5 cos⁻¹(x) - π/3 = 2π/3
becomes
-4 cos⁻¹(x) = π
or
cos⁻¹(x) = -π/4
However, the inverse cosine function has a range of 0 ≤ cos⁻¹(x) ≤ π, so there are no solutions to this equation.
Answer:
10x^2 y(2x + 3y)
Step-by-step explanation:
20x^3 y + 30x^2 y^2.
Factor 10x^2y out of 20x^3y.
10x^2 y (2x) + 30x^2 y^2
Factor 10x^2y out of 30x^2y^2.
10x^2 y (2x) + 10x^2 y (3y)
Factor 10x^2y out of 10x^2 y (2x) + 10x^2 y (3y).
10x^2 y(2x + 3y)
you factor out 10x^2y from both side which you will then get 10x^2 y (2x) + 10x^2 y (3y) than you factor out 10x^2y again and get 10x^2 y(2x + 3y) your third option
Answer:
Um.
Step-by-step explanation:
Could you give an example of what? Or no.?
