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4 years ago

4 red balls 4 white balls what is the probability of drawing at least 1 red ball if two balls are drawn

1 answer:

7 0

The probability of drawing exactly one red ball is given by:
$P(1\ red\ ball)=\frac{4C1\times4C1}{8C2}=\frac{16}{28}$
the probability of drawing two red balls is given by:
$P(2\ red\ balls)=\frac{4C2\times4C0}{8C2}=\frac{6}{28}$
The probability of drawing at least one red ball is:
P(1 red ball) + P(2 red balls) = 16/28 + 6/28 = 11/14.
The answer is $\ \frac{11}{14}$

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cynthia has 300 flowers she gives 50 to jonny divides what she has by 2 and gives half to her mom. What fraction could represent

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125/300 so 300 at the bottom and 125 at the top 300-50 is 250 then 250(divided by)2=150

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3 years ago

Solve for x: 7x + 15 = 38 twenty-three sevenths fifty-three sevenths 23 53

VARVARA [1.3K]

X= 23/7 so twenty-three sevenths

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3 years ago

Multiply.

Reptile [31]

Answer:

correct answer is D

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

In a game called taxation and evasion, a player rolls a pair of dice. if on any turn the sum is 7, 11, or 12, the player gets au

bezimeni [28]

The probability that she gets audited no more than 2 times is 0.896482...

As, a pair of dice are rolling here, so the number of total possible outcome = (6×6) = 36

For Sum = 7 , the favorable outcomes are: (1,6) (2,5) (3,4) (4,3) (5,2) and (6,1)

For Sum = 11 , the favorable outcomes are: (5,6) and (6,5)

For Sum = 12 , the favorable outcome is: (6,6)

Probability = (Number of favorable outcomes)÷(Number of total outcomes)

So, $P(7)= \frac{6}{36} =\frac{1}{6}$

$P(11) = \frac{2}{36} = \frac{1}{18}$

$P(12) = \frac{1}{36}$

P( 7 or 11 or 12) = $\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{18}+\frac{1}{36} = \frac{6+2+1}{36}=\frac{9}{36} = \frac{1}{4}$

Here the total number of trials = 5 and the probability of getting audited = $\frac{1}{4}$

According the binomial distribution formula:

P(X) = (ⁿCₓ )(P)ˣ (1-P)ⁿ⁻ˣ

where P(X) is the probability of x successes out of n trials

Here, n= 5 and P = 1/4 and we need to find the probability of getting audited no more than 2 times. This means she can gets audited 0, 1 or 2 times.

So,

$P(X=0)+P(X=1) +P(X=2)\\\\= [^5C^0 (\frac{1}{4})^0 (1-\frac{1}{4})^5^-^0 ]+[^5C^1 (\frac{1}{4})^1 (\frac{3}{4})^5^-^1]+[^5C^2 (\frac{1}{4})^2 (\frac{3}{4})^5^-^2]\\\\= (\frac{3}{4})^5+ (5) (\frac{1}{4}) (\frac{3}{4})^4 +(10)(\frac{1}{4})^2 (\frac{3}{4})^3\\\\=0.237304... +0.395507...+0.263671...\\\\ = 0.896482...$

So, the probability that she gets audited no more than 2 times is 0.896482...

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3 years ago

When graphed, will the line x - 2y = 6 be

kumpel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope of x-2y=6 is ½.

Slope of line through (5,2) and (3,6) = (6-2)/(3-5) = -2

The two slopes are negative reciprocals of each other (i.e., their product is -1), so the two lines are perpendicular.

8 0

3 years ago