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Talja [164]
3 years ago
6

Two 5.0-kg carts collide on a one-dimensional air track. The total momentum of the carts was 4.9 kg m/s rightwards before the co

llision. After the collision, one cart is moving leftwards at 0.15 m/s. what is the velocity of the second cart?
Physics
2 answers:
Mariana [72]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 1.13 m/s equivalent to 1.1 m/s

Explanation:

Vanyuwa [196]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1.13 m/s right

Explanation:

Momentum before = momentum after

p₀ = p

p₀ = m₁ v₁ + m₂ v₂

4.9 kg m/s = (5.0 kg) (-0.15 m/s) + (5.0 kg) v

4.9 kg m/s = -0.75 kg m/s + (5.0 kg) v

5.65 kg m/s = (5.0 kg) v

v = 1.13 m/s

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What action could a student take to show a transverse wave
ICE Princess25 [194]

Answer:

You can make a horizontale transverse by moving a slinky vertically up and down!

Explanation:

8 0
4 years ago
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Gnesinka [82]
If the forces on an object are balanced (or if there are no forces acting on it), this is what happens:

a stationary object stays still
a moving object continues to move at the same speed and in the same direction
4 0
3 years ago
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A 1056-hertz tuning fork is struck at the same time as a note on the piano and you hear 2 beats/second. You tighten the piano st
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

The frequency of the piano string is <em>1059 Hz</em>.

Explanation:

The frequency beat (fb), 2 beats/second, is the absolute difference between the frequency of the tuning fork (1056 Hz) and the frequency of the piano string.

As the piano string gets tightened, the frequency beat becomes 3 beats/second.

Therefore,

fb = fb = fpiano - ftuning fork\\ 3 Hz=fpiano-1056Hz\\ fpiano=1056Hz+3Hz\\ fpiano=1059Hz

6 0
3 years ago
1. What is the wave speed of a wave that has a frequency of 100 Hz and a wavelength of 0.30 m?
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

1. v = 30 m/s

2. v = 5 m/s

3. f = 40 Hz

4. f = 400 Hz

5. f = 300 Hz

6. λ = 0.772 m

7. λ = 0.386 m

8. λ = 0.625 m

9. v = 100 m/s

10. v = 50 m/s

Explanation:

The relationship between frequency, wavelength, and speed of a wave is given by the following formula:

v = f\lambda

where,

v = speed of wave

f = frequency of wave

λ = wavelength

1.

f = 100 Hz

λ = 0.3 m

Therefore,

v = (100 Hz)(0.3 m)

<u>v = 30 m/s</u>

<u></u>

2.

f = 50 Hz

λ = 0.1 m

v = (50 Hz)(0.1 m)

<u>v = 5 m/s</u>

<u></u>

3.

v = 20 m/s

λ = 0.5 m

f = \frac{v}{\lambda} = \frac{20\ m/s}{0.5\ m}

<u>f = 40 Hz</u>

<u></u>

4.

v = 80 m/s

λ = 0.2 m

f = \frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{80\ m/s}{0.2\ m}

<u>f = 400 Hz</u>

<u></u>

5.

v = 120 m/s

λ = 0.4 m

f = \frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{120\ m/s}{0.4\ m}

<u>f = 300 Hz</u>

<u></u>

6.

v = 340 m/s

f = 440 Hz

\lambda = \frac{v}{f}=\frac{340\ m/s}{440\ Hz}\\

<u>λ = 0.772 m</u>

<u></u>

7.

v = 340 m/s

f = 880 Hz

\lambda = \frac{v}{f}=\frac{340\ m/s}{880\ Hz}\\

<u>λ = 0.386 m</u>

<u></u>

<u></u>

8.

v = 250 m/s

f = 400 Hz

\lambda = \frac{v}{f}=\frac{250\ m/s}{400\ Hz}\\

<u>λ = 0.625 m</u>

<u></u>

9.

f = 50 Hz

λ = 2 m

v = (50 Hz)(2 m)

<u>v = 100 m/s</u>

<u></u>

10.

f = 100 Hz

λ = 0.5 m

v = (100 Hz)(0.5 m)

<u>v = 50 m/s</u>

6 0
3 years ago
a man drags a 8.10 kg bag of mulch at a constant speed, applying a 29.5 N at 38°. what is the coefficient of friction?​
lesantik [10]

Answer:

The coefficient of friction is 0.38.

Explanation:

The free body diagram is drawn below.

Let f be frictional force acting in the backward direction as shown. Let the coefficient of friction be \mu. Let N be the normal reaction force acting on the bag.

Given:

Mass of the bag is, m=8.10\textrm{ kg}

Force acting at \theta = 38° is F= 29.5\textrm{ N}

Acceleration due to gravity is, g=9.8\textrm{ }m/s^{2}

The force F can be resolved into its components as F_{x}=F \cos \theta and F_{y}=F \sin \theta

Therefore,

F_{x}=29.5\cos(38)=23.25\textrm{ N}\\F_{y}=29.5\sin(38)=18.16\textrm{ N}

Now, as there is no acceleration in vertical direction, therefore,

Sum of upward forces = Sum of downward forces

N+F_{y}=mg\\N=mg-F_{y}=8.10\times 9.8-18.16\\N=79.38-18.16=61.22\textrm{ N}

Now, as the bag is moving at a constant speed, so acceleration in the horizontal direction is also zero as acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.

Therefore, backward force = forward force.

f=F_{x}\\f=23.25\textrm{ N}

Now, frictional force is given as:

f=\mu N\\\mu = \frac{f}{N}=\frac{23.25}{61.22}=0.38

Therefore, the coefficient of friction is 0.38.

8 0
4 years ago
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