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Mariulka [41]
3 years ago
12

Find the sum of 0.48 and 0.6

Mathematics
1 answer:
Montano1993 [528]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: the sum is 1.08

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Please help me with this homework
Nady [450]

Answer:

Rational

Step-by-step explanation:

The number comes to a stop (doesn't keep going), so it would be rational.

7 0
3 years ago
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PEMDA is a regular pentagon. which of the statements is correct ​
Gnom [1K]

there are no statements to see of they are correct

3 0
3 years ago
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I don't know what the answer is to divide 180 in a ratio of 4:5:9
Karolina [17]
Hello there,

First you need to add together the numbers.
4+5+9 = 18
Divide the total by this,
180 / 18 = 10
Multiply each number by 10.
40:50:90.

Hope This Helps You!
Good Luck Studying :)
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone plz help me on this plz I beg u plz
JulsSmile [24]
<h3>Answer:  25w+200 > 750</h3>

==========================================================

Explanation:

He starts off with 200 cards. Then he adds on 25w more cards for each week (w). Overall, he'll have 200+25w cards

We can think of it like this:

  • After 1 week, he adds on 25*1 = 25 cards
  • After 2 weeks, he adds on 25*2 = 50 cards total
  • After 3 weeks, he adds on 25*3 = 75 cards total
  • After 4 weeks, he adds on 25*4 = 100 cards total, and so on.
  • After w weeks, he adds on 25w cards total

So that's another way to see where the 25w comes from.

The expression 200+25w is the same as 25w+200. This is because we can add two numbers in any order.

------------

Since he wants to know when he'll have more than 750 cards, this means we set 25w+200 greater than 750.

That's how we get to the answer of 25w+200 > 750

Notice how there isn't a line under the inequality sign. We aren't using the "greater than or equal to" symbol here. We want to know when the cards gets over 750, but we don't want to know when it's equal to 750.

5 0
3 years ago
Prove the following DeMorgan's laws: if LaTeX: XX, LaTeX: AA and LaTeX: BB are sets and LaTeX: \{A_i: i\in I\} {Ai:i∈I} is a fam
MariettaO [177]
  • X-(A\cup B)=(X-A)\cap(X-B)

I'll assume the usual definition of set difference, X-A=\{x\in X,x\not\in A\}.

Let x\in X-(A\cup B). Then x\in X and x\not\in(A\cup B). If x\not\in(A\cup B), then x\not\in A and x\not\in B. This means x\in X,x\not\in A and x\in X,x\not\in B, so it follows that x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B). Hence X-(A\cup B)\subset(X-A)\cap(X-B).

Now let x\in(X-A)\cap(X-B). Then x\in X-A and x\in X-B. By definition of set difference, x\in X,x\not\in A and x\in X,x\not\in B. Since x\not A,x\not\in B, we have x\not\in(A\cup B), and so x\in X-(A\cup B). Hence (X-A)\cap(X-B)\subset X-(A\cup B).

The two sets are subsets of one another, so they must be equal.

  • X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)=\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i)

The proof of this is the same as above, you just have to indicate that membership, of lack thereof, holds for all indices i\in I.

Proof of one direction for example:

Let x\in X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right). Then x\in X and x\not\in\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i, which in turn means x\not\in A_i for all i\in I. This means x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_1}, and x\in X,x\not\in A_{i_2}, and so on, where \{i_1,i_2,\ldots\}\subset I, for all i\in I. This means x\in X-A_{i_1}, and x\in X-A_{i_2}, and so on, so x\in\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i). Hence X-\left(\bigcup\limits_{i\in I}A_i\right)\subset\bigcap\limits_{i\in I}(X-A_i).

4 0
3 years ago
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