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stepan [7]
2 years ago
15

Inverse of f(x)= 3x^2 + 1

Mathematics
1 answer:
Inessa05 [86]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

f−1 (x)= x/3 +1 /3

Step-by-step explanation:

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Two planes A and B start from the same place and move in different directions making an angle of 50° between them the speed of p
Alika [10]

Answer:

The distance between them is 230.65 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we use the Cosine formula

a^2 = b^2 + c^2 - 2bc\ cos\ A\\\\a^2 = 200^2 + 300^2 - 2\times 200\times 300cos50^{\circ}\\\\= 40,000 + 90,000 - 120,000cos50^{\circ}\\\\= 130,000 - 120,000 \times 0.64\\\\= 130,000 - 76,800\\\\a^2= 53,200\\\\a = \sqrt{53,200} \\\\= 230.65\ miles\ per\ hour

Now the distance for one hour is

= 230.65 ÷ 1

= 230.65 miles

4 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the exponential expression below?
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

the answer is D which is 6

7 0
2 years ago
Someone help me please!
andriy [413]

Answer:

To solve the first inequality, you need to subtract 6 from both sides of the inequality, to obtain 4n≤12. This can then be cancelled down to n≤3 by dividing both sides by 4. To solve the second inequality, we first need to eliminate the fraction by multiplying both sides of the inequality by the denominator, obtaining 5n>n^2+4. Since this inequality involves a quadratic expression, we need to convert it into the form of an^2+bn+c<0 before attempting to solve it. In this case, we subtract 5n from both sides of the inequality to obtain n^2-5n+4<0. The next step is to factorise this inequality. To factorise we must find two numbers that can be added to obtain -5 and that can be multiplied to obtain 4. Quick mental mathematics will tell you that these two numbers are -4 and -1 (for inequalities that are more difficult to factorise mentally, you can just use the quadratic equation that can be found in your data booklet) so we can write the inequality as (n-4)(n-1)<0. For inequalities where the co-efficient of n^2 is positive and the the inequality is <0, the range of n must be between the two values of n whereby the factorised expresion equals zero, which are n=1 and n=4. Therefore, the solution is 1<n<4 and we can check this by substituting in n=3, which satisfies the inequality since (3-4)(3-1)=-2<0. Since n is an integer, the expressions n≤3 and n<4 are the same. Therefore, we can write the final answer as either 1<n<4, or n>1 and n≤3.

5 0
2 years ago
87432 divided by 24 need help
Julli [10]

Answer:

3643

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jessica shoebox is 20 cm long and 10 cm wide. How many more millimetres is the length of the shoebox than the width?
Jet001 [13]
Ok so for every 1 centimeter you get 10 millimeters. Meaning that if you multiply 20 * 10 you get 200 millimeters and if you multiply 10 * 10 you get 100. Now you subtract 200-100 and you get 100 millimeters.
8 0
3 years ago
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