Ask question

Ask question

All categories

2 years ago

5

Three-quarters of a pound of candy cost 66 cents. Find the cost of one pound of candy.

1 answer:

konstantin123 [22]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$0.88 per pound

Step-by-step explanation:

you want to divide the 3/4 pounds by 3, and when you do that, you also have to divide the 66 cents by 3 as well, then multiply the 1/4 you get from dividing 3/4 by 3, and multiply it by 4 to get 1 pound, but when you do that, you have to do the same thing with the 22 cents you get from dividing 66 cents by 3, which will give you 88 cents per pound

You might be interested in

Tomorrow, Mrs. Wendel's class will be using toothpicks for a science project. Each student must use at least 5 toothpicks for th

Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

I'm pretty sure A but let me know if I'm wrong

7 0

2 years ago

How to write 2.06 x 10 to the 10th power in standard form?

snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

20.60000000000

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Lin counts 5 bacteria under a microscope. She counts them again each day for four days, and finds that the number of bacteria do

Liula [17]

Answer:

The population of bacteria can be expressed as a function of number of days.

Population = $5*2^{n-1}$ where n is the number of days since the beginning.

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of bacteria on the first day= $5 * 2^{0} = 5$

Number of bacteria on the second day = $5 * 2^{1} = 10$

Number of bacteria on the third day = $5*2^{2} = 20$

Number of bacteria on the fourth day = $5*2^{3} = 40$

As we can see , the number of bacteria on any given day is a function of the number of days n.

This expression can be expressed generally as $5*2^{n-1}$ where n is the number of days since the beginning.

6 0

3 years ago

Question 5: prove that it’s =0

mamaluj [8]

Answer:

Proof in explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm going to attempt this by squeeze theorem.

We know that $\cos(\frac{2}{x})$ is a variable number between -1 and 1 (inclusive).

This means that $-1 \le \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le 1$ .

$x^4 \ge 0$ for all value $x$ . So if we multiply all sides of our inequality by this, it will not effect the direction of the inequalities.

$-x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4$

By squeeze theorem, if $-x^4 \le x^4 \cos(\frac{2}{x}) \le x^4$

and $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=L$ , then we can also conclude that $\im_{x \rightarrow} x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=L$ .

So we can actually evaluate the "if" limits pretty easily since both are continuous and exist at $x=0$ .

$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}x^4=0^4=0$

$\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}-x^4=-0^4=-0=0$ .

We can finally conclude that $\lim_{\rightarrow 0}x^4\cos(\frac{2}{x})=0$ by squeeze theorem.

Some people call this sandwich theorem.

6 0

2 years ago

Please help me out!

Lesechka [4]

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

3 years ago