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Solve the equation.<br><br> 20 = –d + 16

My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

20 = -d + 16 <em>subtract 16 from both sides</em>

20 - 16 = -d + 16 - 16

4 = -d <em>change the signs</em>

-4 = d ⇒ d = -4

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The average value of a function f over the interval [−2,3] is −6 , and the average value of f over the interval [3,5] is 20. Wha

Xelga [282]

Answer:

The average value of $f$ over the interval $[-2,5]$ is $\frac{10}{7}$ .

Step-by-step explanation:

Let suppose that function $f$ is continuous and integrable in the given intervals, by integral definition of average we have that:

$\frac{1}{3-(-2)} \int\limits^{3}_{-2} {f(x)} \, dx = -6$ (1)

$\frac{1}{5-3} \int\limits^{5}_{3} {f(x)} \, dx = 20$ (2)

By Fundamental Theorems of Calculus we expand both expressions:

$\frac{F(3)-F(-2)}{3-(-2)} = -6$

$F(3) - F(-2) = -30$ (1b)

$\frac{F(5)-F(3)}{5-3} = 20$

$F(5) - F(3) = 40$ (2b)

We obtain the average value of $f$ over the interval $[-2, 5]$ by algebraic handling:

$F(5) - F(3) +[F(3)-F(-2)] = 40 + (-30)$

$F(5) - F(-2) = 10$

$\frac{F(5)-F(-2)}{5-(-2)} = \frac{10}{5-(-2)}$

$\bar f = \frac{10}{7}$

The average value of $f$ over the interval $[-2,5]$ is $\frac{10}{7}$ .

4 0

2 years ago

When a fair coin is flipped, what is the chance of getting about 50% heads- specifically between 40% and 60% heads for n=10 flip

aleksklad [387]

At at least one die come up a 3?We can do this two ways:) The straightforward way is as follows. To get at least one 3, would be consistent with the following three mutually exclusive outcomes:the 1st die is a 3 and the 2nd is not: prob = (1/6)x(5/6)=5/36the 1st die is not a 3 and the 2nd is: prob = (5/6)x((1/6)=5/36both the 1st and 2nd come up 3: prob = (1/6)x(1/6)=1/36sum of the above three cases is prob for at least one 3, p = 11/36ii) A faster way is as follows: prob at least one 3 = 1 - (prob no 3's)The probability to get no 3's is (5/6)x(5/6) = 25/36.So the probability to get at least one 3 is, p = 1 - (25/36) = 11/362) What is the probability that a card drawn at random from an ordinary 52 deck of playing cards is a queen or a heart?There are 4 queens and 13 hearts, so the probability to draw a queen is4/52 and the probability to draw a heart is 13/52. But the probability to draw a queen or a heart is NOT the sum 4/52 + 13/52. This is because drawing a queen and drawing a heart are not mutually exclusive outcomes - the queen of hearts can meet both criteria! The number of cards which meet the criteria of being either a queen or a heart is only 16 - the 4 queens and the 12 remaining hearts which are not a queen. So the probability to draw a queen or a heart is 16/52 = 4/13.3) Five coins are tossed. What is the probability that the number of heads exceeds the number of tails?We can divide

3 0

2 years ago

Multiply. Express your answer in standard form.(x^2-4x+3)(-3x^2+7x-1)

Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

-3x^4 + 5x^3 - 33x^2 + 25x - 3

//Hope it helps and it's right.