Answer:
The correct answer is
Juan has dividend income of $250,000.
good luck ❤
The free cash flow can be calculated as below:
Revenue 12000000
Less: Expense (8000000)
Less: Depreciation (1500000)
Earnings Before Tax 2500000
Less Tax (750000)
Earnings after tax 1750000
Add Depreciation 1500000
Total Cash Earnings 3250000
Less: Change in Working Capital (500000)
Less : Purchase of Asset (700000)
Free Cash Flow 2050000
Thus Free Cash Flow can be calculated as above.
Answer:
Debit Notes Payable $45,000; debit Interest Payable $750; debit Interest Expense $750; credit Cash $46,500
Explanation:
The journal entry is given below:
Notes payable $45,000
Interest payable ($45,000 × 10% × 60 ÷ 360) $750
Interest expense ($45,000 × 10% × 60 ÷ 360) $750
To Cash $46,500
(Being payment of notes payable is recorded)
here note payable, interest payable, interest expense is debited as it increased the expenses and decreased the liabilities while on the other hand the cash is credited as it decreased the assets
Answer:
Explanation:
Journal entries:
Oct 1
Dr Cash 41,000
Cr Common stock 41,000
Oct 2
No entry
Oct 3
Dr Equipment 4,400
Cr Accounts payable 4,400
Oct 6
Dr Accounts receivable 13,000
Cr Sales 13,000
Oct 10
Dr Cash 170
Cr Service revenue 170
Oct 27
Dr Accounts Payable 880
Cr Cash 880
Oct 30
Dr Salaries expense 2,500
Cr Cash 2,500
Answer:
a.
Capital budgeting decisions are reversible in nature.
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