The answer is 350.
<em>
m= minutes</em>
Plan 1: 9+0.13<em>m</em>
Plan 2: 23+0.09<em>m</em>
9+0.13<em>m</em> = 23+0.09<em>m</em>
-9 -9
0.13<em>m</em> = 14+0.09<em>m</em>
-0.09<em>m</em> -0.09<em>m</em>
0.04<em>m</em>= 14
14÷0.04= 350
<em>m</em>= 350
To solve an equation for a variable, you must isolate the variable on either side of the equation. To do this, simply subtract 32 from both sides of the original equation:
F ( – 32 ) = C + 32 ( – 32 )
F – 32 = C
We have proven that C is equal to (F – 32). This equation (bold) is the answer to your problem.
I hope this helps!
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer will be 60+ because 48 minutes is a long time and if youstudy for a long time you memorize more
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
There are
2 yellow
3 magenta
5 blue
marbles in the bag.
So total of 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 marbles
We have to multiply the probability of yellow on first pick by the probability of yellow on second pick (WITHOUT REPLACEMENT).
We denote P(Y1) as probability of yellow on first draw &
P(Y2) as probability of yellow on second draw
Thus,
P(Y1) = 2/10 = 1/5 [since 2 yellow and 10 total marbles]
Now,
P(Y2) = 1/9 [since now 1 yellow is taken out and NOT replaced, so we have 1 yellow remaining and total 9 marbles]
Now, we multiply:
P(Y1) * P(Y2) = 1/5 * 1/9 = 1/45
The probability is 