Answer:
$270,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the amount of Machining cost assigned to Product A
Using this formula
Machine cost=Machine hours*Activity rate
Let plug in the formula
Machine cost=1,800*$150
Machine cost =$270,000
Therefore the amount of Machining cost assigned to Product A will be $270,000
N=log((1−14,880×0.0106÷660)^(−1))÷log(1+0.0106)=25.9 months
Answer:
correct option is c. $2.51
Explanation:
given data
strike price of $30 = $2
underlying stock price = $29
dividend = $0.50
risk-free rate = 10%
solution
we use here pit call parity that is
c - p = s - k 
-D .....................1
S is current price and c is call premium and r is rate and t is time
so price of put p will be
p = c-s + k + D
put here value and we get
p = 2 -29 + 30 
+ 0.5 
+ 0.5 
p = 2.508
p = $2.51
so correct option is c. $2.51
Answer:
Standard.
Explanation:
In the context above, it can be seen that the 1988 was been provided to be a standard for growth and high export year against all other years. Therefore, in a bid to improve its manufacture growth, different things are expected to change back or better than the model or steps that are been used. Objectives to determine a huge success in the current project is seen to be in a cue with that of the year discussed above.
To maximize profit, the perfectly competitive firm charges a price equal to the marginal cost while the monopolist charges a price greater than the marginal cost.
The monopolist will select the profit-maximizing level of output where MR = MC, and then charge the price for that quantity of output as determined by the market demand curve. If that price is above average cost, the monopolist earns positive profits.
In a monopolistically competitive market, the rule for maximizing profit is to set MR = MC and the price is higher than marginal revenue, not equal to it because the demand curve is downward sloping.
Learn more about monopolists at
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