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Makovka662 [10]
3 years ago
7

What is the answer? Is it the first, second, third or fourth.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Sophie [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

4th

Step-by-step explanation:

There are fewer than 76 because 5 x 76= 380+20=400 and 400 has to be greater than the number. Therefore you make it less than 76. Hopefully this helps!

Vsevolod [243]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(d)

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is there are fewer than 76.

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sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

like just pay attenction in class

5 0
3 years ago
Hello!
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

  • A. 2 < x < 10

Step-by-step explanation:

With two congruent sides the third side is greater against a greater angle.

<u>34 < 36, therefore:</u>

  • 3x - 6 < 24
  • 3x  < 30
  • x < 10

<u>And, the angle should have a positive value:</u>

  • 3x - 6 > 0
  • 3x > 6
  • x > 2

<u>Combined, we get:</u>

  • 2 < x < 10
8 0
3 years ago
A drawer contains 4 white socks, 5 black socks, and 3 brown socks. Find the probability that...
IRINA_888 [86]

Answer:

5/12

7/12

125/36 = 3,47%

50/11 = 4,54%

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability a black sock is selected when a person chooses 1 sock = 5/12

Probability a white or brown sock is selected when a person chooses 1 sock =

7/12

Probability  a person chooses 3 socks and selects a white first, a black second, and a brown last if the socks are replace = (4/12 * 5/12 * 3/12)*100 =125/36 = 3,47%

Pobability  a person chooses 3 socks and selects a white first, a black second, and a brown last if the socks are NOT replace = (4/12 * 5/11 * 3/ 10)*100 = 50/11 = 4,54%

3 0
3 years ago
Guys.....My Bf just broke up with me I will give away 100 point brainlist if you help me calm down.
Assoli18 [71]

Answer:

Ok for one im sooo sooorrry i know how it feels but guess what that guy is probably a loser you should tell yourself your better than him and you deserve better. Some People are just du.mb but u can do better.

7 0
3 years ago
There are 10 cards. Each card has one number between 1 and 10, so that every number from 1 to 10 appears once.
pychu [463]

Answer:

When a card is chosen at random with replacement five times, X is the number of times a prime number is chosen.          Here the card is chosen with replacement.  This implies probability for choosing a prime number remains the same as the previously drawn card is replaced.

The sample space= {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}

Prime numbers = {2,3,5,7}

Prob for drawing prime number = 4/10 = 0.4

is the same when replacement is done.

Also there are two outcomes either prime or non prime.  Hence in this case, X the no of times a prime number is chosen, is binomial with p =0.4 and q = 0.6 and n=5


When a card is chosen at random without replacement three times, X is the number of times an even number is chosen.

Prob for an even number = 0.5

But after one card drawn say odd number next card has prob for even number as 5/9 hence each draw is not independent of the other.  Hence not binomial.

When a card is chosen at random with replacement six times, X is the number of times a 3 is chosen.

Here since every time replacement is done, probability of drawing a 3 remains constant = 1/10 = 0.3

i.e. each draw is independent of the other and there are only two outcomes , 3 or non 3. Hence here X is binomial.

When a card is chosen at random with replacement multiple times, X is the number of times a card is chosen until a 5 is chosen

Here X is the number of times a card is chosen with replacement till 5 is chosen.  This is not binomial.  Here probability for drawing nth time correct 5 is  P(non 5 in the first n-1 draws)*P(5 in nth draw) = 0.1^(n-1) (0.9)

Because nCr is not appearing i.e. 5 cannot appear in any order but only in the last draw, this is not binomial.

Step-by-step explanation:


6 0
3 years ago
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