Answer:
The declaration is mostly accurate or correct.
Explanation:
- Task success can be induced by work satisfaction. But that could also be accurate the opposite way round, i.e. work success affects employee satisfaction.
- The inference reached here does not specify which incident seems to be the reason and which one is the trigger's consequence. A significant direct connection between the two can not be identified. Other than that, there could be other variables that may control the two variables.
Answer:
All of the above are true.
Explanation:
The law of diminishing returns was first formulated by the classic economist David Ricardo. It presupposes a technical relationship between input and output, which is not scientifically demonstrable but only empirically. In practice, in a generic production system, at any contribution of any factor, that is, land, labor, capital, machines, etc. there is no proportionally increasing production increase.
Normally it is assumed that the law does not always come into operation but only when the variable input exceeds a certain threshold. For example, the increase of workers on an assembly line certainly allows a proportional increase in production, but only until the entire system begins to suffer from malfunctions due to logistics or work organization, precisely because of the its getting bigger. Large industrial plants have shown that they must be divided into sections, however coordinated, precisely because of the decreasing returns. This is because the increase in the number of workers and the mass of the plants does not correspond to a consequent increase in production.
Answer:
The answer is 6.72%
Explanation:
Calculating the imputed rate from a discount bond as follows:
( 1 + i )^n = FV / PV
( 1 + i )^3 = FV / PV, here FV= 1000 and PV= 727.25
so putting values in equation we have:
( 1 +i )^3 = 1000 / 727.25
( 1 + i )^3 = 1.375
solving for i
( 1 + i) = 1.375^1/3
( 1 + i ) = 1.112
i = 0.112 before tax rate
0.112 * (1 - tax rate) = after tax interest rate
0.112 * .60 = 0.0672 = 6.72%
thus the expected after tax cost of this debt issue is 6.72%
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
a.
Contribution per unit
= Selling price per unit - Variable costs per unit
= $300 - $200
= $100 per unit
Now
Break even point (units)
= Fixed costs ÷ Contribution margin per unit
= $14,000,000 ÷ $100
= 140,000 units
And,
b)
Sales units required for a target profit of $1,400,000
So,
= (Fixed costs + Target profits) ÷ Contribution margin per unit
= ($14,000,000 + $1,400,000) ÷ $100
= 154,000 units
Answer:
$5,697,674
Explanation:
Dividend Valuation method is used to value the operations of a company based on the dividend paid, its growth rate and rate of return/WACC. The price is calculated by calculating present value of future dividend payment.
Free cash flow is the residual cash flow of operation after paying the capital expenditure from net income of the company. It represent the cash from the operations.
Formula to calculate the value of operation
Value of Operations = FCF / ( WACC - growth rate )
Value of Operations = $490,000 / ( 13% - 4.4% )
Value of Operations = $5,697,674
