Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
using your f(x) I want to show you how to plug in different things itnot he function.
f(x) = -x + 4
f(1) = -1 + 4 = 3
f(2) = -2 + 4 = 2
f(m) = -m + 4
f(abc) = -(abc) + 4
f(h(x)) = -h(x) + 4
Does that help? what if you replaced h(x) with g(x)? Of course you already have that x so you could make it a little simpler as well. Let me know if you don't quite get it.
Answer:
I’m not sure. If your joking or.
11400 ÷12 = 950 hundreds
95000 x 100/25 = $380,000 <== value of the property
