Answer:
the firm will have a loss of 6.414,97
Break-even rate = 11.34%
Explanation:
We calcualte the present value of a lump sum to know the present sale value:
Nominal: 154,000
time 5 years
rate 0.13
PV 83,585.03
the current sale price 83,585.03
given a cost of <u> (90,000) </u>
the firm will have a loss of 6.414,97
To break event the present value should be 90,000:

rate = 0.113411345 = 11.34%
It is termed as Income Summary account.
<h3>Income summary account </h3>
The income summary account is a temporary account into which all income statement revenue and expense accounts are transferred at the end of an accounting period. The net amount transferred into the income summary account equals the net profit or net loss that the business incurred during the period.
The income summary account is recorded by debiting revenue accounts and crediting expense accounts. The balances of the transferred amounts should match with the net income or loss for the year.
Learn more about income summary account here :
brainly.com/question/13537015
#SPJ4
Answer:
d. A debit to Work-in-Process Inventory, Finishing Department of $140,000.
Explanation:
Cost of unit transferred = $4 x 35,000 = $140,000
Cost incurred by mixing department is $4 which so the transfer of cost from mixing department to finishing department will be $140,000 for 35000 units. This cost will be recorded in the work in process inventory account of finishing department. As we know that WIP account has debit nature so same entry will be done to record an expense incurred in mixing department.
<u>Full question:</u>
A company acquires all of the voting stock of Previn Company, and records the transaction by debiting “Investment in Previn Company.” The company is accounting for its investment as a
a. statutory consolidation.
b. variable interest entity.
c. joint venture.
d. stock acquisition.
<u>Answer:</u>
The company is accounting for its investment as a stock acquisition
<u>Explanation:</u>
In a stock acquisition, a purchaser obtains an objective company’s assets undeviatingly from the merchandising sharers. With a stock trade, the purchaser is pretending possession of both assets and contracts – including latent contracts from former activities of the market.
The purchaser is solely moving into the shoes of the former landlord and the trade proceeds. Juxtapose this to another way of acquisition, an asset dealings. Following the closing of the stock acquisition, the scapegoat will endure as it survived ere the acquisition concerning its possession of assets and contracts.
It’s A- interest hope that helped :D