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zepelin [54]
3 years ago
11

Help me please ❤️ !!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
DIA [1.3K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

<u>Piece-Wise Function</u>

  • can have more than one type of function
  • holes can exist
  • to evaluate, look at the right side to determine which piece of the function to use

<u>Linear Function</u>

  • is written in standard form Ax + By = C
  • slope is the same for the entire graph
  • is written in slope-intercept form y=mx+b

Neither one of these always looks like a parabola.

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Write the equation of the parabola in vertex form.vertex (0,2), point (1,-5)
charle [14.2K]
Y=a(x-h)^2+k
-5=a(1-0)^2+2
-5=a+2
-3=a

y=-3x^2+2
3 0
3 years ago
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alex spent 3/7 of his money he gave 1 /4 of the remainder to his sistet he haf $120 left how much money did he in the beginning
Sonbull [250]
Let his total money be x.
He spent (3/7)*x of his money.
He gave 1/4(x-3/7x) to his sister. 
which is : (1/4)*(4/7)*x = (1/7)*x 
Now,
How much money he have in the beginning = 
(3/7)*x+(1/7)*x+120=x
(4/7)*x+120=x
120=x-(4/7)*x
120=(3/7)*x
x=120*7/3 [cross multiplication]
x=280.

So, Alex had $280 in the beginning.

6 0
4 years ago
What is 43 in expanded form? A. 8 × 8 B. 12 × 12 × 12 C. 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 D. 4 × 4 × 4
vovikov84 [41]
4^3 = 4 x 4 x 4

answer
<span>D. 4 × 4 × 4</span>
3 0
4 years ago
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19. The marked price of a certain handbag is $400. After two successive
yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

x = 25%

Step-by-step explanation:

At the first sale of 25% off, the handbag price dropped from $400 to $300. This is because (400 x 0.25 = 100) and (400 - 100 = 300) Therefore, the selling price of the handbag after one sale was $300.

At the second sale of 25% off, the handbag price dropped from $300 to $225. This is because (300 x 0.25 = 75) and (300 - 75 = 225). Therefore, the selling price of the handbag after two sales is $225.

The value of x remained the same for both sales. x = 25% or 0.25

5 0
3 years ago
Under typical conditions, 1 <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D" id="TexFormula1" title="\frac{1}{2}" alt="\
damaskus [11]

Answer:

2\frac{1}{3}inches

Step-by-step explanation:

First, I would try to get the mixed numbers into improper fractions. Then, I try to make them have the same denominator so it is easier.

1\frac{1}{2}feet --- 2 inches

\frac{3}{2}feet --- 2 inches

\frac{6}{4}feet --- 2 inches

1\frac{3}{4}feet --- ? inches

\frac{7}{4}feet --- ? inches

\frac{7}{4}feet --- \frac{7}{6} × 2 inches

             = 2\frac{1}{3}inches

3 0
3 years ago
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