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Vinil7 [7]
3 years ago
10

A card is picked at random from a pack of 52 playing cards. The probability that it is a 6

Mathematics
1 answer:
Bingel [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: 4/52 = 1/13

Step-by-step explanation: Every card in the deck has 4 suits which means that there will be 4 sixes in the deck so the probability will be any of the 4 out of the whole 52 or 1/13.

Brainliest plz

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PLEASE HELP ME ASAP <br><br> Determine the slope of each line:
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

a=(2/5), b = (-2,6)

Step-by-step explanation:

well slope formula is rise/run. So for the first one you start at the point  rise 2 run 5 and you reach the endpoint. That is how you know you got the correct slope.  (2/5)

For the second one you start at the first point and you cannot go up because it is a negative slope you run 6 till you hit the other point go down 2. Since you go down 2 that would make it -2.  (-2,6)

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are factors of 36?
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

C. 4 and 9

Step-by-step explanation:

All the factors of 36 is 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, and 36.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The linear function f i with values f(-1) = 10 and f(5) = -1 is f(x)
zhenek [66]
Answer:

Use the two points to compute the slope, m, then use one of the points in the form <span>y=m<span>(x)</span>+b</span> to find the value of b.

Explanation:

The equation for the slope, m, of a line is:

<span>m=<span><span><span>y1</span>−<span>y0</span></span><span><span>x1</span>−<span>x0</span></span></span> [1]</span>

The equation <span><span>f<span>(2)</span></span>=−1</span> tells us that <span><span>x0</span>=2and<span>y0</span>=−1</span>; substitute this into equation [1]:

<span>m=<span><span><span>y1</span>−−1</span><span><span>x1</span>−2</span></span> [2]</span>

The equation <span><span>f<span>(5)</span></span>=4</span> tells us that <span><span>x1</span>=5and<span>y1</span>=4</span>; substitute this into equation [2]:

<span>m=<span><span>4−−1</span><span>5−2</span></span> [3]</span>

<span>m=<span>53</span></span>

Substitute <span>53</span> for m into the equation <span>y=m<span>(x)</span>+b</span>

<span>y=<span>53</span>x+b [4]</span>

Substitute 2 for x and -1 for y and the solve for b:

<span>−1=<span>53</span><span>(2)</span>+b</span>

<span>b=−<span>133</span></span>

Substitute <span>−<span>133</span></span> for b in equation [4]:

<span>y=<span>53</span>x−<span>133</span> [5]</span>

Check:

<span>−1=<span>53</span><span>(2)</span>−<span>133</span></span>
<span>4=<span>53</span><span>(5)</span>−<span>133</span></span>

<span>−1=−1</span>
<span>4=<span>4</span></span>

<span><span>
</span></span>

<span><span>Hope this helps </span></span>

3 0
3 years ago
As fast as possible before today
andrezito [222]

I am writing answers directly.

<h3>1. 5×5=5 {}^{2}</h3><h3>2. -5×-5×-5×-5 = ( - 5) {}^{4}</h3><h3 /><h3>3. 2×2×2=2 {}^{3}</h3><h3>4. n×n×n×n×n×n=n {}^{6}</h3>
6 0
2 years ago
A human hair is approximately 40 microns (um) wide. If 1 um is equal to 10
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

D 40,000nm

Step-by-step explanation: 1nm/10^-9m * 10^-6/1um = 10^3 nm/um

Therefore in 40 microns there are:

40um * 10^3 nm/um = 40 * 10^3 nm = 40,000 nm

5 0
2 years ago
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