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Paladinen [302]
3 years ago
14

A restaurant bill is $84.97 find the 20% show your work

Mathematics
2 answers:
Zarrin [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

20% of $84.97 is 16.99, or 17 if you're rounding.

Step-by-step explanation:

83.97*0.30 = 16.994

That's pretty much all the work there is to do.

ICE Princess25 [194]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

16.994

Step-by-step explanation:

it will be

20% = 0.2

so

84.97×0.2 =16.994

You might be interested in
Kerry and three friends went out for dinner. They split a large pizza and each person had a salad and a soda. They want to leave
klio [65]

Answer:

Each person will pay $ 7.20

Step-by-step explanation:

First we find the total bill

Pizza $18.60

Salad $2.50

<u>Soda $2.25</u>

Total  $ 23.35

Sales Tax would be=  8 1/4% of $ 23.35 =$ 1.926= $ 1.93

Tip = 15% of $ 23.35= $ 3.5025

Total Bill paid= $ 23.35 + $ 1.93+ $3.50= $ 28.7825 or $ 28.78

Now dividing the bill among 4 persons = $ 28.78/4= $ 7.196 or $ 7.20

Paying the bill equally is better  and convenient than paying alone as each person gets an equal share of pizza, salad and the soda.

3 0
3 years ago
Need done asap
Stells [14]

Answer:

transitive property

Step-by-step explanation:

According to transitive property, if there is some relation between a and b by some rule , and then there same relation between  b and c by some rule, then

A and C are related to each other by some rule.

Example:

A = B

B=C

then by transitive property

A=C

As value of A and C are same that is B we can say that A is equal to C whose value is B.

_______________________________________________

Given

a =2z and 2z=b

here both c and b has value equal to Z , Thus, they follow transitive property.

8 0
3 years ago
A ski lift is designed with a total load limit of 20,000 pounds. It claims a capacity of 100 persons. An expert in ski lifts thi
Yanka [14]

Answer:

0.5 = 50% probability that a random sample of 100 independent persons will cause an overload

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution and the central limit theorem.

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem estabilishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean \mu and standard deviation s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}.

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

For the sum of n values of a distribution, the mean is \mu \times n and the standard deviation is \sigma\sqrt{n}

An expert in ski lifts thinks that the weights of individuals using the lift have expected weight of 200 pounds and standard deviation of 30 pounds. 100 individuals.

This means that \mu = 200*100 = 20000, \sigma = 30\sqrt{100} = 300

If the expert is right, what is the probability that a random sample of 100 independent persons will cause an overload

Total load of more than 20,000 pounds, which is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 20000. So

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{20000 - 20000}{300}

Z = 0

Z = 0 has a pvalue of 0.5

1 - 0.5 = 0.5

0.5 = 50% probability that a random sample of 100 independent persons will cause an overload

5 0
3 years ago
In a G.P the difference between the 1st and 5th term is 150, and the difference between the
liubo4ka [24]

Answer:

Either \displaystyle \frac{-1522}{\sqrt{41}} (approximately -238) or \displaystyle \frac{1522}{\sqrt{41}} (approximately 238.)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let a denote the first term of this geometric series, and let r denote the common ratio of this geometric series.

The first five terms of this series would be:

  • a,
  • a\cdot r,
  • a \cdot r^2,
  • a \cdot r^3,
  • a \cdot r^4.

First equation:

a\, r^4 - a = 150.

Second equation:

a\, r^3 - a\, r = 48.

Rewrite and simplify the first equation.

\begin{aligned}& a\, r^4 - a \\ &= a\, \left(r^4 - 1\right)\\ &= a\, \left(r^2 - 1\right) \, \left(r^2 + 1\right) \end{aligned}.

Therefore, the first equation becomes:

a\, \left(r^2 - 1\right) \, \left(r^2 + 1\right) = 150..

Similarly, rewrite and simplify the second equation:

\begin{aligned}&a\, r^3 - a\, r\\ &= a\, \left( r^3 - r\right) \\ &= a\, r\, \left(r^2 - 1\right) \end{aligned}.

Therefore, the second equation becomes:

a\, r\, \left(r^2 - 1\right) = 48.

Take the quotient between these two equations:

\begin{aligned}\frac{a\, \left(r^2 - 1\right) \, \left(r^2 + 1\right)}{a\cdot r\, \left(r^2 - 1\right)} = \frac{150}{48}\end{aligned}.

Simplify and solve for r:

\displaystyle \frac{r^2+ 1}{r} = \frac{25}{8}.

8\, r^2 - 25\, r + 8 = 0.

Either \displaystyle r = \frac{25 - 3\, \sqrt{41}}{16} or \displaystyle r = \frac{25 + 3\, \sqrt{41}}{16}.

Assume that \displaystyle r = \frac{25 - 3\, \sqrt{41}}{16}. Substitute back to either of the two original equations to show that \displaystyle a = -\frac{497\, \sqrt{41}}{41} - 75.

Calculate the sum of the first five terms:

\begin{aligned} &a + a\cdot r + a\cdot r^2 + a\cdot r^3 + a \cdot r^4\\ &= -\frac{1522\sqrt{41}}{41} \approx -238\end{aligned}.

Similarly, assume that \displaystyle r = \frac{25 + 3\, \sqrt{41}}{16}. Substitute back to either of the two original equations to show that \displaystyle a = \frac{497\, \sqrt{41}}{41} - 75.

Calculate the sum of the first five terms:

\begin{aligned} &a + a\cdot r + a\cdot r^2 + a\cdot r^3 + a \cdot r^4\\ &= \frac{1522\sqrt{41}}{41} \approx 238\end{aligned}.

4 0
2 years ago
How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0
laila [671]
First, lets note that tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta). This leads us with the following problem:

cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

cot(\theta)=1

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}

In general we have cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}, the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture:

4 0
3 years ago
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