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Ber [7]
3 years ago
15

Round 60.2551187 to the nearest degree​

Mathematics
2 answers:
velikii [3]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

60.2551187 round to is 60

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if wrong

mark as brainliest plzz

dsp733 years ago
4 0

Answer:

60

Step-by-step explanation:

2 its below 5 so it stays the same

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Solve r9+1= 0 please help idk what it means or anything really
sveta [45]

Answer:

r = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the answer because:

1) You can take the root of both sides and solve

2) You can also isolate the variable and solve for it

1. r9 + 1 = 0, divide 9 and 0 first. 9 x 0 = 0

2. r + 1 = 0, subtract 0 and 1. 0 - 1 = -1

Hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
Chef Johnson used 4 1/2 cups of flour to make 4 fruit cakes.
Nesterboy [21]
THE ANSWER IS C 1 1/8
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Help please I don't get how to do this
Wewaii [24]

Answer:

15:5 = 18:6 = 21:7

The scale factor is 1/3 or 0.33.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%20%5Cdisplaystyle%20%5Cint%20%5Climits_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%20%5Cfrac%7B%20%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%
murzikaleks [220]

Let x = \arcsin(y), so that

\sin(x) = y

\tan(x)=\dfrac y{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

dx = \dfrac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

Then the integral transforms to

\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_{y=\sin(0)}^{y=\sin\left(\frac\pi2\right)} \frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}} \ln(y) \frac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy

Integrate by parts, taking

u = \ln(y) \implies du = \dfrac{dy}y

dv = \dfrac{y}{1-y^2} \, dy \implies v = -\dfrac12 \ln|1-y^2|

For 0 < y < 1, we have |1 - y²| = 1 - y², so

\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = uv \bigg|_{y\to0^+}^{y\to1^-} + \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy

It's easy to show that uv approaches 0 as y approaches either 0 or 1, so we just have

\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy

Recall the Taylor series for ln(1 + y),

\displaystyle \ln(1+y) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n y^n

Replacing y with -y² gives the Taylor series

\displaystyle \ln(1-y^2) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n (-y^2)^n = - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n y^{2n}

and replacing ln(1 - y²) in the integral with its series representation gives

\displaystyle -\frac12 \int_0^1 \frac1y \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}n \, dy = -\frac12 \int_0^1 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n-1}}n \, dy

Interchanging the integral and sum (see Fubini's theorem) gives

\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy

Compute the integral:

\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy = -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}{2n^2} \bigg|_0^1 = -\frac14 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2}

and we recognize the famous sum (see Basel's problem),

\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}6

So, the value of our integral is

\displaystyle \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \boxed{-\frac{\pi^2}{24}}

6 0
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IRINA_888 [86]

<em>So</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>right</em><em> </em><em>answer</em><em> </em><em>is</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>5</em><em>0</em><em>0</em><em>.</em>

<em>look</em><em> </em><em>at</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>attached</em><em> </em><em>picture</em><em>⤴</em>

<em>Hope</em><em> </em><em>it</em><em> </em><em>will</em><em> </em><em>help</em><em> </em><em>y</em><em>o</em><em>u</em><em>.</em><em>.</em>

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