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fomenos
3 years ago
5

Confused as heck need help

Business
2 answers:
irinina [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

memo

Explanation:

Semmy [17]3 years ago
4 0
I think it would me debit
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Nancy, age 67, plans to retire in six months. She has $200,000 in a savings account. She would like to receive lifetime monthly
Oliga [24]
C. Sorry if I got it wrong have a good day
4 0
3 years ago
If price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in t
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

produce at an economic loss.

Explanation:

In a perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers of homogeneous products, and there is free entry and exit in the market.

This simply means that, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers (price takers) of homogeneous products (standardized products with substitute) and the market is free (practically open) to all individuals or business entities that are willing to trade all their goods and services.

In a perfectly competitive market in long-run equilibrium, a long-run equilibrium avails firms the opportunity to adjust all inputs and all fixed costs are maximized. Also, it's characterized by free entry and exit, as such there isn't a fixed number of firms. This simply means that, since the number of firms in a long-run equilibrium can change, a firm must exit the market as a result of losses i.e when the firm is unable to cover its fixed costs in the long-run while new firms are allowed entry into the market when it anticipates potential profits or gains.

However, the firms always strive to maximize profits by increasing their level of output, such that P = MC. Also, the firms wouldn't be willing to leave or enter into the market because they are not making any profit, such that P=AC.

In a nutshell, in the long run equilibrium P=MR=MC and P=AC.

Hence, if price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will produce at an economic loss.

Additionally, Average Total Cost (ATC) can be defined as the overall cost of production divided by total output of production. It is calculated by dividing total cost by total output of production or by adding TVC and TFC.

8 0
2 years ago
What is a foreign country that is currently being impacted financially due to the Coronavirus
Westkost [7]

Answer:

Macau

Explanation:

First, we need to understand that all countries are impacted financially due to the corona virus. It's predicted that Corona Virus will cause a loss of around $2.7 trillion in Global Economy.

That being said, some countries are impacted more than the others.

Especially those who rely on tourism and hospitality as their main economy. Macau is probably the one that got the hardest hit. Not only this country is located near China (where the virus originally came from) , tourism and hospitality accounted for around 43% of Macau's economy. Basically half of its  economic activity shut down due to the virus.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The price of gold is currently $1,400 per ounce. The forward price for delivery in one year is$1,500. An arbitrageur can borrow
Rashid [163]

Answer:

The arbitrageur should borrow money at 4% per annum since it is cheaper than paying the forward price for delivery

Explanation:

Current price of gold=$1,400 per ounce

Forward price=$1,500

The arbitrageur can either pay the forward price or borrow $1400 and pay the interest of 4% in a year. Consider option 1 paying the forward price of 1500

Option 1

Since there are no additional costs, the total cost for buying the gold=forward price=$1,500

Option 2

If the arbitrageur borrows the 1400 to pay for the gold now, then pay the interest in 1 year;

The total cost=Amount borrowed+interest accrued in 1 year

Total cost=1400+(4%×1400)

1400+((4/100)×1400)

1400+56=$1456

Since there are no additional costs, option 2=$1456

If we compare option 1 to option 2, we notice that option 2 is slightly cheaper than option 1 by $44

(Option 1-Option 2)=(1500-1456)=$44

The arbitrageur should borrow money at 4% per annum since it is cheaper than paying the forward price for delivery

8 0
2 years ago
Total 0 1 to 30 31 to 60 61 to 90 over 90
natulia [17]

Answer:

a. $25,650

b. Journal entries

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a. The balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is

=  Total account receivable × estimated percentage

= $570,000 × 4.5%

= $25,650

b. The adjusting entry is as follows

Bad Debt Expense  $13,650       ($25,650 - $12,000)

         To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $13,650

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

c. The adjusting entry is as follows

Bad Debt Expense  $26,650       ($25,650 + $1,000)

         To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $26,650

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

4 0
3 years ago
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