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Anika [276]
3 years ago
10

​The table shows the function g(x) .

Mathematics
2 answers:
adelina 88 [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The y-intercept of f(x) is <u>greater than</u> the y-intercept of g(x) .

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided function.

The table shows the function g(x).

The y-intercept is the value of the function when the value of x is zero.

From the table we can concluded that the y intercept is 0.

The y intercept of the function g(x) is zero.

Now consider the function f(x)=2^{4x}

Substitute x=0 in above function.

f(x)=2^{4\times 0}

f(x)=2^{0}

f(x)=1

The y intercept of the function f(x) is 1.

As we know; 1>0

Hence, the y-intercept of f(x) is <u>greater than</u> the y-intercept of g(x) .

larisa86 [58]3 years ago
4 0
According to the table shown, the function that best represents g (x) is the function g (x) = 2x. This can be shown with the values of the table because if x = -1 then g (-1) = - 2. If x = 0 then g (0) = 0. And if x = 1 then g (1) = 2.

While for f (x) we have:
x f (x)-1 -80 01 8

Then f (x) = 4g (x)



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