Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
To calculate percentages, start by writing the number you want to turn into a percentage over the total value so you end up with a fraction. Then, turn the fraction into a decimal by dividing the top number by the bottom number. Finally, multiply the decimal by 100 to find the percentage.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
I believe that x is equal to 10
Step-by-step explanation:
A) The probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.
B) The probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.
C) The probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.
<h2 /><h2><u>How to determine probabilities</u></h2>
Since a miniature golf player sinks a hole-in-one about 12% of the time on any given hole and is going to play 8 games at 18 holes each, to determine A) what is the probability the golfer got zero or one hole -in-one during a single game, B) what is the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game, and C) what is the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game , the following calculations must be performed:
- 1 - 0.12 = 0.88
- 0.88 ^ 17 = 0.1138
- 0.88 ^ 18 = 0.1001
Therefore, the probability the golfer got zero or one hole-in-one during a single game is between 10.01% and 11.38%.
- 0.88 ^ 18 - 0.12 ^ 2 = X
- 0.0857 = X
Therefore, the probability the golfer got exactly two holes-in-one during a single game is 8.57%.
- 0.12 ^ 6 x 0.88 ^ 12 = X
- 0.0000000001 = X
Therefore, the probability the golfer got six holes-in-one during a single game is close to 0%.
Learn more about probabilities in brainly.com/question/25273534
Answer:
40%
Step-by-step explanation:
Percent markup = new price - original price/original price
Do the subtraction first.
58.80 - 42.00 = 16.80
Now do the division
16.8/42 = 0.40
Change the decimal to a percent by moving the decimal two place to the right.
0.40 = 40%
