Let us suppose number of rides is x.One ride costs $0.50.
Cost of x rides is 0.50x. The carnival charges is $5. Alex has $15 to spend .
Number of rides at most Alex can have can be given by the inequality:
0.50x+5≤ 15
To solve for x we subtract 5 both sides
0.50x≤ 15-5
0.50x≤ 10
Dividing both sides by 0.50 we have :
x≤ 20
Number of rides at most Alex can have is 20.
Answer:
Angle IEF = Angle CEH ( corresponding)
Therefore Angle CEH = 96°
Answer:
=
$
518.01
Explanation:
compound interest formula $A = P*(1+R)^n#
P
=
$
400
,
r
=
.09
,
n
=
3
Substituting the values, we get A =
400
⋅
(
1.09
)
3
=
$
518.01
From my alt account from, https://socratic.org/questions/how-much-would-400-invested-at-9-interest-compounded-continuously-be-worth-after
Learning to spell would be smart ...
