Answer:
a₄=8n+1= -39.
Step-by-step explanation:
1) if a₁=3n; a₃=5n-6 and a₅=11n+8, then it is possible to calculate the difference according to 0.5(a₅-a₃)=0.5(a₃-a₁). Then
2) 0.5(11n+8-5n+6)=0.5(5n-6-3n); ⇔ 6n+14=2n-6; ⇔ n= -5.
3) if n=-5, then the 4th term is:
or a₄=-39.
y = mx + b
The b is always the y-intercept, so that means
y = mx + b
y = 6x + 8
The answer is C. (0, 8)!
⭐ Please consider brainliest! ⭐
✉️ If any further questions, inbox me! ✉️
Answer:
10/11
Step-by-step explanation:
The fractions already have like denominators so you just add the numerators as there is no need to find the LCM but just in case
Answer: <em>1/10</em>
Step-by-step explanation: These two events are independent, meaning the outcome of the first event doesn't affect the outcome of the second.
To find the probability of independent events, first, find the
probability of each event, then multiplies the probabilities.
The probability of spinning an A on the first spinner is 1/5
since there is 1 favorable outcome and 5 total outcomes.
The probability of spinning an odd number on the second spinner
is 3/6 which simplifies to 1/2 since there are 3 favorable outcomes,
spinning a 1, 3, or another 3 since these are odd numbers.
So now we have 1/5 × 1/2 and when multiplying fractions,
we multiply across the numerators and denominators to get 1/10.
So the probability of spinning an A, then an odd number is 1/10.
