Answer:
2x-3
Step-by-step explanation:
Example w:5
2(5)-3=7
twice 5 then -3
For simple interest the answer would be $6650 but for compound interest it would be $6838.16 I hope this helped ^^ (It is $1650 extra for simple interest and $1838.16 for compound)
Answer:
(a) E(X) = -2p² + 2p + 2; d²/dp² E(X) at p = 1/2 is less than 0
(b) 6p⁴ - 12p³ + 3p² + 3p + 3; d²/dp² E(X) at p = 1/2 is less than 0
Step-by-step explanation:
(a) when i = 2, the expected number of played games will be:
E(X) = 2[p² + (1-p)²] + 3[2p² (1-p) + 2p(1-p)²] = 2[p²+1-2p+p²] + 3[2p²-2p³+2p(1-2p+p²)] = 2[2p²-2p+1] + 3[2p² - 2p³+2p-4p²+2p³] = 4p²-4p+2-6p²+6p = -2p²+2p+2.
If p = 1/2, then:
d²/dp² E(X) = d/dp (-4p + 2) = -4 which is less than 0. Therefore, the E(X) is maximized.
(b) when i = 3;
E(X) = 3[p³ + (1-p)³] + 4[3p³(1-p) + 3p(1-p)³] + 5[6p³(1-p)² + 6p²(1-p)³]
Simplification and rearrangement lead to:
E(X) = 6p⁴-12p³+3p²+3p+3
if p = 1/2, then:
d²/dp² E(X) at p = 1/2 = d/dp (24p³-36p²+6p+3) = 72p²-72p+6 = 72(1/2)² - 72(1/2) +6 = 18 - 36 +8 = -10
Therefore, E(X) is maximized.
Answer: The mean of this binomial distribution is 53.36.
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that , the mean of this binomial distribution is given by :_
, where n = sample size or the number of possible trials .
p = probability of getting success in each trial.
We are given that , the probability of success in each of the 58 identical engine tests is p = 0.92.
i.e. n= 58
p=0.92
Then, the mean of this binomial distribution = 
Hence , the mean of this binomial distribution is 53.36.
They travel to school by picking the amount of conductions associated with the classmates. They travel with their belongings and bring them with them as they transport to their location (school). Once they get to school than they must place their belongings. The population is associated with global and significance. They will then conduct and the math teachers wont be worried.
(Brainliest will be appreciated) Thanks
