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klasskru [66]
2 years ago
12

Help please lol.......

Mathematics
2 answers:
galina1969 [7]2 years ago
7 0
The awnser is 24 in^3
vivado [14]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

24 in^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a rectangular prism is length * width * height, which is 24. Volume is always in units cubed.

You might be interested in
Every day your friend commutes to school on the subway at 9 AM. If the subway is on time, she will stop for a $3 coffee on the w
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

1.02% probability of spending 0 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

7.68% probability of spending 3 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

23.04% probability of spending 6 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

34.56% probability of spending 9 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

25.92% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

7.78% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Step-by-step explanation:

For each day, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the subway is on time, or it is not. Each day, the probability of the train being on time is independent from other days. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this problem.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

The probability that the subway is delayed is 40%. 100-40 = 60% of the train being on time, so p = 0.6

The week has 5 days, so n = 5

She spends 3 dollars on coffee each day the train is on time.

Probabability that she spends 0 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late all 5 days, so it is P(X = 0).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{5,0}.(0.6)^{0}.(0.4)^{5} = 0.0102

1.02% probability of spending 0 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 3 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 4 days and on time for 1, so it is P(X = 1).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.6)^{1}.(0.4)^{4} = 0.0768

7.68% probability of spending 3 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 6 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 3 days and on time for 2, so it is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{5,2}.(0.6)^{2}.(0.4)^{3} = 0.2304

23.04% probability of spending 6 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 9 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 2 days and on time for 3, so it is P(X = 3).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 3) = C_{5,3}.(0.6)^{3}.(0.4)^{2} = 0.3456

34.56% probability of spending 9 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 12 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 1 day and on time for 4, so it is P(X = 4).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 4) = C_{5,4}.(0.6)^{4}.(0.4)^{1} = 0.2592

25.92% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 15 dollars on coffee:

Probability that the subway is on time all days of the week, so P(X = 5).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 5) = C_{5,5}.(0.6)^{5}.(0.4)^{0} = 0.0778

7.78% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

8 0
3 years ago
Can someone please help ASAP
White raven [17]

Answer: 36

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply -6 by itself six times, then divide 1 by -6 four times. Multiply the products. Then multiply -6 by itself one more time and you will get 36.

The top question is 1/4. There seems to be a small multiplaction symbol next to the fractions, I'm ignoring that. To get 1/4, I multiplied 2 by itself six times because of the exponent, to get 64. I did the same with the bottom, and recieved 256. 64/256 is 1/4.

6 0
3 years ago
Guys help me this is hard​
Leokris [45]

Answer:

well 126/9=14 but is the other stuff factor families or something? like whats the question asking

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Jay is 3 years less than 4 times Nelly’s age ( n ). Which expression represents Jay’s age?
NeX [460]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation: 3x4= 12  -3=9

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In the spinner below, what is true about the probability of landing on 3 and the probability of landing on 4?
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

Answer:

C.The probabilities are equal.  

The above statement is the only TRUE statement.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, the given number of total possibilities are { 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}

So, number of total outcomes = 10

Let E : Event of spinner landing on 3

and E' : Even of spinner landing on 4

{Probability of Event E}  =  \frac{\textrm{Total number of favorable outcomes}}{\textrm{Toatl outcomes}}

\implies P(E) = \frac{1}{10}

⇒ P( landing on 3 ) = 1/10

and  P(E') = \frac{1}{10}

P( landing on 4 ) = 1/10

Now, the given statements are

A.The probability of landing on 3 is less than  probability of landing on 4.

FALSE, as both the probabilities are equal to 1/10.

B.The probability of landing on 3 is greater than probability of landing on 4.

FALSE, as both have same probabilities.

C.The probabilities are equal.

TRUE, both have same probability = 1/10

D.The probabilities cannot be predicted

FALSE, the probability are predictable.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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