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melomori [17]
3 years ago
15

(-7, -2) and (2, -9)

Mathematics
2 answers:
Georgia [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

-16

Step-by-step explanation:

xxTIMURxx [149]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

-16

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve T + M = R, for T a. T = R + M c. T = R - M b. T = M - R d. T + R = M
levacccp [35]

Answer: C ; T = R - M

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Determine the most precise name for quadrilateral ABCD. Answers: parallelogram quadrilateral rhombus kite angles: (7,6) (3,5) (2
devlian [24]

Answer:

  rhombus

Step-by-step explanation:

It is helpful to plot the points on a graph. There, you can see that the rise and run of each segment are 1 and 4 (or vice versa). This tells you they are the same length, but not perpendicular.

A quadrilateral with all sides the same length, but not perpendicular, is a rhombus.

3 0
3 years ago
83 + what = 180 :3 ^-^
Mazyrski [523]
97 is the answer to your question
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You read online that the probability of being dealt four‑of‑a‑kind in a five‑card poker hand is 1 / 4165. Explain carefully what
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.

<u>But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing.  So, the awnser would have to be. D  </u>

Step-by-step explanation:

A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.

B.  It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.

C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.

D. The chance you will be dealt four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165 only on the first hand. This chance will then increase with each new hand you are dealt until you eventually win

6 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me with this
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

Y is 90 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is an equalterial triangle which means all of the angles are the same.  The angle for the upper part of the triangle is 60 as well. We can do 2x=60 because they add up to the angle which is 60. This gives us x=30. If x=30 and the other angle is 60, then the other angle has to be 90 because all triangle has an angle sum of 180. So 30 +60 + 90= 180. Hope this helps!

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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