Assuming the order required is as n-> inf.
As n->inf, o(log(n+1)) -> o(log(n)) since the 1 is insignificant compared with n.
We can similarly drop the "1" as n-> inf, the expression becomes log(n^2+1) ->
log(n^2)=2log(n) which is still o(log(n)).
So yes, both are o(log(n)).
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Answer:
V≈33.51
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve for volume
V=4/3πr3
=43·π·23≈33.51032
Answer:5,700
because:
380 time 15 is equal to:
5,700
Answer:
a=-32 if you think that was a good answer pls mark as brainliest
Step-by-step explanation:
a-(-14) is the same as a+14
a+14=-18
a=-32
