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Julli [10]
3 years ago
9

How many times does 7 go into 60

Mathematics
2 answers:
lora16 [44]3 years ago
8 0
7 doesn't go perfectly into 60. So it can only go in 8 times and you'll have a remainder of 4. I hope this helped :)
katovenus [111]3 years ago
7 0
It can go into 60 8 hope i helped
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Add the deimcimals. Round your answer to the nearest thousandth 73.4582 + 2.0033
Stolb23 [73]
<span>75.4615 is the answer I got. hope this helped let me know if the answer is correct </span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the diagram to answer the question. What is the measure of ∠A? Enter the correct value. Do not enter the degree symbol.
forsale [732]

Answer:

Measure of ∠A = 60.07°

Step-by-step explanation:

From the figure attached,

ΔABC is a right triangle,

Measure of side AC = 15 units

and measure of side BC = 13 units

By applying Sine rule in this triangle,

SinA = \frac{\text{Opposite side}}{\text{Hypotenuse}}

Opposite side of angle A = Side AC

and hypotenuse of the triangle = Side BC

SinA = \frac{13}{15}

    A = \text{Sin}^{-1}(\frac{13}{15})

    A = 60.07°

Therefore, measure of angle A is 60.07°.

4 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me with this question
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

The horizontal shift is to the left by 2 units and the vertical shift is down 3 units for this function.

I hope I was able to help!

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
A bag contains 4 red marbles, 6 blue marbles and 7 green marbles. If three marbles are drawn out of the bag, what is the probabi
yawa3891 [41]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Total marble = 4+6+7 = 17

Number of green = 7

Prob(1st green) = 7/17

Now their are 6 green left and 16 marble

Prob(2nd green) = 6/16 = 3/8

Now their are 5 green left and 15 marble

Prob(3rd green) = 5/15 = 1/3

Prob(1st and 2nd and 3rd green) will be = 7/17 × 3/8 × 1/3

= 7/(17×8)

= 7/136

3 0
3 years ago
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