Answer:
dV/dt = 9 cubic inches per second
Explanation:
Let the height of the cylinder is h
Diameter of cylinder = height of the cylinder = h
Radius of cylinder, r = h/2
dh/dt = 3 inches /s
Volume of cylinder is given by
put r = h/2 so,
Differentiate both sides with respect to t.
Substitute the values, h = 2 inches, dh/dt = 3 inches / s
dV/dt = 9 cubic inches per second
Thus, the volume of cylinder increases by the rate of 9 cubic inches per second.
Answer:
60km/hr west
Explanation:
When you are dealing with velocity you always name the direction its going in
Atmospheric pressure is caused by the weight of the atmosphere pushing down on itself and on the surface below it.
Pressure is defined as the force acting on an object divided by the area upon witch the force is acting.
Complete question:
What is the peak emf generated by a 0.250 m radius, 500-turn coil is rotated one-fourth of a revolution in 4.17 ms, originally having its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field 0.425 T. (This is 60 rev/s.)
Answer:
The peak emf generated by the coil is 15.721 kV
Explanation:
Given;
Radius of coil, r = 0.250 m
Number of turns, N = 500-turn
time of revolution, t = 4.17 ms = 4.17 x 10⁻³ s
magnetic field strength, B = 0.425 T
Induced peak emf = NABω
where;
A is the area of the coil
A = πr²
ω is angular velocity
ω = π/2t = (π) /(2 x 4.17 x 10⁻³) = 376.738 rad/s = 60 rev/s
Induced peak emf = NABω
= 500 x (π x 0.25²) x 0.425 x 376.738
= 15721.16 V
= 15.721 kV
Therefore, the peak emf generated by the coil is 15.721 kV
The statement about pointwise convergence follows because C is a complete metric space. If fn → f uniformly on S, then |fn(z) − fm(z)| ≤ |fn(z) − f(z)| + |f(z) − fm(z)|, hence {fn} is uniformly Cauchy. Conversely, if {fn} is uniformly Cauchy, it is pointwise Cauchy and therefore converges pointwise to a limit function f. If |fn(z)−fm(z)| ≤ ε for all n,m ≥ N and all z ∈ S, let m → ∞ to show that |fn(z)−f(z)|≤εforn≥N andallz∈S. Thusfn →f uniformlyonS.
2. This is immediate from (2.2.7).
3. We have f′(x) = (2/x3)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, and f′(0) = limh→0(1/h)e−1/h2 = 0. Since f(n)(x) is of the form pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, where pn is a polynomial, an induction argument shows that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n. If g is analytic on D(0,r) and g = f on (−r,r), then by (2.2.16), g(z) =
