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morpeh [17]
3 years ago
14

R = 4sin(2θ). What is the length of each petal

Mathematics
1 answer:
vampirchik [111]3 years ago
5 0
20sin in the power of 3
5 goes into this 12 times
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Add 3 and 7. then multiply by 3.
Reil [10]

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

First, add 3 and 7

3 + 7 =10

The multiply by 3

10*3= 30

Hope this helps!

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An electric sale gives a reading equal to the true weight plus a random error that isnormally distributed with mean 0 and standa
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

a) 95% confidence interval estimate of the true weight is (3.026, 3.274)

b) 99% confidence interval estimate of the true weight is (2.944, 3.356)

Step-by-step explanation:

Confidence Interval can be calculated using M±ME where

  • M is the mean of five successive weightings (3.150)
  • ME is the margin of error from the mean

And margin of error (ME) can be calculated using the formula

ME=\frac{t*s}{\sqrt{N} } where

  • t is the corresponding statistic in the given confidence level and degrees of freedom(t-score)
  • s is the standard deviation of the random error (0.1)
  • N is the sample size (5)

Using the numbers 95% confidence interval estimate of the true weight is:

3.150±\frac{2.776*0.1}{\sqrt{5} }≈3.150±0.124

And 99% confidence interval estimate of the true weight is:

3.150±\frac{4.604*0.1}{\sqrt{5} }≈3.150±0.206

3 0
3 years ago
I need to have twenty characters here
mestny [16]
Try explaining how you worked the problem and how you did it
6 0
3 years ago
The probability that Caroline wins a raffle is given by the expression
RSB [31]

Answer:  \frac{n-m}{n}

This is the same as writing (n-m)/n

Don't forget about the parenthesis if you go with the second option.

==================================================

Explanation:

The probability that she wins is m/n, where m,n are placeholders for positive whole numbers.

For instance, m = 2 and n = 5 leads to m/n = 2/5. This would mean that out of n = 5 chances, she wins m = 2 times.

The probability of her not winning is 1 - (m/n). We subtract the probability of winning from 1 to get the probability of losing.

We could leave the answer like this, but your teacher says that the answer must be "in the form of a combined single fraction".

Doing a bit of algebra would have these steps

1 - \frac{m}{n}\\\\\frac{n}{n} - \frac{m}{n}\\\\\frac{n-m}{n}\\\\

and now the expression is one single fraction.

8 0
3 years ago
HELPPPPPPPPPPP PLEASEEEEEEE <br> What point does the line pass through?
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

It passes through (1,1).

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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