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ivolga24 [154]
3 years ago
11

Someone please me thank you

Mathematics
1 answer:
RSB [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Graph dots in the points of the following:

(-4,10)

(-3,8)

(-2,6)

(-1,4)

(0,2)

(1,0)

(2,-2)

(3,-4)

(4,-6)

(5,-8)

(6,-10)

Connect these dots to make a line.

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Solve the equation for x.<br> -x^2+14=10
mariarad [96]
-x^2 + 14 = 10

subtract 14 from each side

-x^2 = -4

divide each side by -1

x^2 =4

square root each side

x = 2

hope this helps!!! :)
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3 years ago
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Which answer is the equation of the line represented in function notation?
Likurg_2 [28]
Your answer is C bc the y intercept is positive 4 and the slope is positive 4 since the arrow slanted to the right
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2 years ago
How do I do orders of operations
shusha [124]

Step-by-step explanation:


Go from left to right doing any "A" or "S" as you find them. You can remember by saying "Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Sally".


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3 years ago
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On the 40th birthday, Mr. Ramos decided to buy a pension plan for himself. This plan will allow him to claim
Mama L [17]

Answer:

The amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Calculation of present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday

The present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV60 = Q * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = ?

Q = quarterly claim = P10,000

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters = number of years * Number of quarters in a year = 5 * 4 = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1), we have:

PV60 =  P10,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.02))^20) / 0.02)

PV60 = P10,000 * 16.3514333445971

PV60 = P163,514.33  

Step 2: Calculation of one-time payment on his 40th birthday

The one-time payment can be calculated using the formula the following formula:

PV = PV60 / (1 + r)^n ........................ (2)

Where;

PV = Present value or One-time payment = ?

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = P163,514.33

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters from 40th to 3 months after his 60th birthday = (number of years * Number of quarters in a year) + One quarter = (20 * 4) + 1 = 81

Substitute the values into equation (2), we have:

PV = P163,514.33 / (1 + 0.02)^81 = P32,880.77

Therefore, the amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

7 0
3 years ago
2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2+2=
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

i counted 24 2's and 24 x 2 is 48 also i did the math

3 0
2 years ago
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