Probabilities are used to determine the chances of events
The experimental probability of not spinning a 1 is 0.84
<h3>How to determine the probability of not spinning a 1</h3>
From the bar graph, we have the following highlights
- Total number of spin = 50
- Total spin of 1 = 8
So, the probability of spinning a 1 is:
![P(1) = \frac{8}{50}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%281%29%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B8%7D%7B50%7D)
![P(1) = 0.16](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%281%29%20%3D%200.16)
The probability of not spinning a 1 is then calculated using the following complement rule
![P'(1) = 1 - P(1)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%27%281%29%20%3D%201%20-%20P%281%29)
![P'(1) = 1 -0.16](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%27%281%29%20%3D%201%20-0.16)
![P'(1) = 0.84](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%27%281%29%20%3D%200.84)
Hence, the experimental probability of not spinning a 1 is 0.84
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/251701
According to Pythagoras Theorem
H^2= A^2+B^2
B= √64-49= √15
As a fraction it would be 163/500 and it is 326 thousand
It said my answer has to be 20 characters long but all you have to do is subtract so the answer would be 568