Answer:
the operating cash flow is $17,820
Explanation:
The computation of the operating cash flow is shown below;
Annual depreciation = $87,000 ÷5
= $17,400
Now
Operating cash flow is
= (sales - cash costs - depreciation) × (1 - tax rate) + depreciation expense
= ($75,000 - $57,000 - $17,400) × (1 - 0.3) + $17,400
= $420 + $17,400
= $17,820
hence, the operating cash flow is $17,820
The long run will see the supply curve of a completive firm changing to the b. portion of the marginal-cost curve that lies above the average-total-cost curve.
<h3>What is the long-run supply curve in a perfect competition?</h3>
In a perfect competition, a company will only produce goods and services at a level where the marginal cost curve is above the average total cost in the long run.
This means that the supply curve will be the marginal cost curve but only the portion of this curve that is above the long-run average total cost curve.
The reason for this is that in the long-run., all the costs in a perfectly competitive firm are considered variable and so they can afford to avoid supply mishaps in the short term.
In conclusion, option B is correct.
Find out more on the long-run supply curve at brainly.com/question/15869064
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I think it's a cashier's check...(Don't mark my words)
Answer: 12.5 times
Explanation:
The accounts receivable turnover tells you how effective your company's collection mechanism is.
Accounts Receivable turnover = net credit sales/accounts receivables
= 8500000/600000+760000 = 12.5 times.
Answer:
$21,800
Explanation:
The computation of 4-year revenue is as shown below:-
Bond Income of 4th Year = Face amount × Bond × 1 ÷ 2
= $500,000 × 8% × 1 ÷ 2
= $20,000
Interest Revenue = Bond Income + Amount of Discount Amortized
= $20,000 + $1,800
= $21,800
Therefore for computing the interest revenue we simply bond income with the amount of discount amortized.
