(a) The object moves with uniform velocity from A to B.
(b) The object moves with constant velocity from B to C.
(c) The object moves with increasing velocity from C to D.
<h3>
Velocity of the object from point A to B</h3>
V(A to B) = (6 - 0)/(4 - 0) = 1.5 m/s
<h3>
Velocity of the object from point B to C</h3>
V(B to C) = (6 - 6)/(11 - 4) = 0 m/s
<h3>
Velocity of the object from point C to D</h3>
V(C to D) = (7 - 6)/(12 - 11) = 1 m/s
final velocity = 1 + 1.5 m/s = 2.5 m/s
Thus, we can conclude the following;
The object moves with uniform velocity from A to B.
The object moves with constant velocity from B to C.
The object moves with increasing velocity from C to D.
Learn more about velocity here: brainly.com/question/6504879
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Answer:
50
Explanation:
The mechanical advantage of a machine is given by
where
is the output force
is the input force
For the crowbar in this problem,
is the force in input applied by the worker
is the force that the machine must apply in output to overcome the resistance of the window and to open it
Substituting into the equation, we find
Answer:
Solution is in explanation
Explanation:
part a)
For normalization we have
![\int_{0}^{\infty }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore \int_{0}^{\infty }ae^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\Rightarrow a\int_{0}^{\infty }e^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{\infty }=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[0-1]=1\\\\\therefore a=k](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7Df%28x%29dx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7Dae%5E%7B-kx%7Ddx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5CRightarrow%20a%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7De%5E%7B-kx%7Ddx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-k%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Be%5E%7Bkx%7D%7D%5D_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7D%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-k%7D%5B0-1%5D%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20a%3Dk)
Part b)
![\int_{0}^{L }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore Re(\int_{0}^{L }ae^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(a\int_{0}^{L }e^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\therefore Re(\frac{a}{-ik}[\frac{1}{e^{ikx}}]_{0}^{L})=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(\frac{a}{-ik}(e^{-ikL}-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%20%7Df%28x%29dx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20Re%28%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%20%7Dae%5E%7B-ikx%7Ddx%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5CRightarrow%20Re%28a%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%20%7De%5E%7B-ikx%7Ddx%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20Re%28%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-ik%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Be%5E%7Bikx%7D%7D%5D_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%7D%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5CRightarrow%20Re%28%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-ik%7D%28e%5E%7B-ikL%7D-1%29%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7Bk%7DRe%28%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B-i%7D%28cos%28-kL%29%2Bisin%28-kL%29-1%29%29%3D1)
Answer:
1.67 A
Explanation:
Given that,
→ Power (P) = 400 W
→ Potential difference (V) = 240 V
→ Current (I) = ?
The amount of current drawn will be,
→ P = V × I
→ I = P/V
→ I = 400/240
→ I = 1.66666666667
→ [ I = 1.67 A ]
Hence, the current drawn 1.67 A.
The distance between two basket ball sized aluminium balls is 9714 m.
Explanation:
Coulomb's law, or Coulomb's inverse-square law, is an experimental law of physics that quantifies the amount of force between two stationary, electrically charged particles. The electric force between charged bodies at rest is conventionally called electrostatic force or Coulomb force .
Coulomb's law formula => F = (k * Qb1 * Qb2)/r²
Given data :-
charge on ball 1 Qb1 = 6C
charge on ball 2 Qb2 = 14C
Force exerted F = 8000 N
k = 8.988 x 10^9 Nm²C−²(coulomb's constant).
substituting given values in the coulomb's formula
8000 = (( 8.988 x 10^9)*6*14)/r²
shifting r and 8000 to other sides
r² = (756 * 10^9)/8000
r = 9714 m.
Therefore the distance between two balls is r = 9714 m.
