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Nonamiya [84]
3 years ago
8

5. A television set is sale at P13,499 in cash or on installment terms, P2,500 each

Mathematics
1 answer:
klio [65]3 years ago
3 0
Cash is always king. It will cost you more if you pay interest, but you may not have enough money to buy this very over priced $13,499 TV. I say shop around for a cheaper TV.
You might be interested in
If 3x + 5y = 2 and 2x - 4y = 20, what is 5x - y?
gavmur [86]

Answer:

= 298/11

Step-by-step explanation:

3x + 5y = 2 | ×2 |

2x - 4y = 20 | ×3 |

6x + 10y = 4

6x - 12y = 60

____________--

22y = -56

y = -56/22

y = -28/11

3x + 5y = 2 | ×4 |

2x - 4y = 20 | ×5 |

12x + 20y = 8

10x - 20y = 100

_____________+

22x = 108

x = 108/22

x = 54/11

5x - y

= 5(54/11) - (-28/11)

= 270/11 + 28/11

= 298/11

8 0
3 years ago
The probability that a grader will make a marking error on any particular question of a multiple-choice exam is 0.15. If there a
sashaice [31]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)

what is the probability that no errors are made?

For this case means that all the questions were correct so we want this probability:

P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

what is the probability that at least one error made?

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

If there are n questions and the probability of a marking error is p rather than 0.15, give expressions for the probabilities of no errors  and at least one error

P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

8 0
3 years ago
Can you show me the answer?​
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

I can't even see the picture. I'm sorry.

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
I could use help plz
guajiro [1.7K]
6.7
+ 26.87
______
33.57
7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pls anyone I need answer of this urgent PLEASE
oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

Q.#1 is a

Q.#2 is d

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps:)

5 0
3 years ago
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