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2 years ago

9

I need help...... 25 points

2 answers:

Andrews [41]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

ANTONII [103]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

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Basile [38]

Answer:

We know that ,

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So ,

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we can add 2 pi to it since there will be no change in the value

Also,

$\: \rightarrow \tt \cos( \frac{14\pi}{6} ) = \frac{1}{2} \\ \\ \\ \rightarrow \tt \frac{1}{2} x = \frac{14\pi}{6} \\ \\ \rightarrow \tt x = \frac{7\pi}{3}$

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1 year ago

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lianna [129]

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2 years ago

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Kitty [74]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Because both when we multiply we will get the same answer

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11111nata11111 [884]

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