2 years ago

Please help me out on this..............

Mathematics

1 answer:

Anna11 [10]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Option #2: 32 ÷2

Step-by-step explanation:

Take Note: There are 2 cups in a pint.

Since we are converting cups TO pints.... the number should (logically) be smaller. That eliminates the last two options.

Referring back to our note, it is only sensible to eliminate the first option since there are only 2 cups per pint, NOT 4.

In the end, you should have gotten option 2 which is 32÷2.

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