<h3>
Answer: C) 3</h3>
=========================================================
Explanation:
f(x) is the outer function, so the final output -8 corresponds to f(x)
We see that f(-4) = -8 in the first column of the table. I'm starting with the output and working my way backward to get the input. So we started with -8 and worked back to -4.
Then we move to the g(x) function to follow the same pattern: start with the output and move to the input. We start at -4 in the g(x) bubble and move to 3 in the x bubble.
In short, g(3) = -4
So,
f(g(x)) = f(g(3)) = f(-4) = -8
We see that x = 3 leads to f(g(x)) = -8
<h3>Answer: 7366.96 dollars</h3>
========================================================
Use the compound interest formula:
A = P(1+r/n)^(n*t)
where in this case,
A = 12000 = amount after t years
P = unknown = deposited amount we want to solve for
r = 0.05 = the decimal form of 5% interest
n = 1 = refers to the compounding frequency (annual)
t = 10 = number of years
-------
Plug all these values into the equation, then solve for P
A = P(1+r/n)^(n*t)
12000 = P(1+0.05/1)^(1*10)
12000 = P(1.05)^(10)
12000 = P(1.62889462677744)
12000 = 1.62889462677744P
1.62889462677744P = 12000
P = 12000/1.62889462677744
P = 7366.95904248911
P = 7366.96
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
0.00183
Step-by-step explanation:
The two companies produce different products and the chance to go bankrupt will be different based on the product made. So, the probability of the company A and B to go bankrupt is independent.
To find the answer of this question, we just need to multiply the probability to go bankrupt of each company. The calculation will be:
P(A=bankrupt) * P(B=bankrupt)= 3% * 6.1% =0.183%= 0.00183
Step-by-step explanation:
volume of cylinder=π(d/2)²h=π/4×10²×10=250πcm³