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Degger [83]
3 years ago
14

The measure of angle 1 is 130°.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Butoxors [25]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

eimsori [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The angle opposite angle 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Opposite angles have the same degree when two lines intersect because they are vertical angles.

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Help plzzz<br>Select the correct answer.<br>​
Morgarella [4.7K]
<h3>Answer:  C) 3</h3>

=========================================================

Explanation:

f(x) is the outer function, so the final output -8 corresponds to f(x)

We see that f(-4) = -8 in the first column of the table. I'm starting with the output and working my way backward to get the input. So we started with -8 and worked back to -4.

Then we move to the g(x) function to follow the same pattern: start with the output and move to the input. We start at -4 in the g(x) bubble and move to 3 in the x bubble.

In short, g(3) = -4

So,

f(g(x)) = f(g(3)) = f(-4) = -8

We see that x = 3 leads to f(g(x)) = -8

3 0
3 years ago
A bank pays 5% interest compounded annually. What principal will grow to $12,000 in 10 years.
makvit [3.9K]
<h3>Answer: 7366.96 dollars</h3>

========================================================

Use the compound interest formula:

A = P(1+r/n)^(n*t)

where in this case,

A = 12000 = amount after t years

P = unknown = deposited amount we want to solve for

r = 0.05 = the decimal form of 5% interest

n = 1 = refers to the compounding frequency (annual)

t = 10 = number of years

-------

Plug all these values into the equation, then solve for P

A = P(1+r/n)^(n*t)

12000 = P(1+0.05/1)^(1*10)

12000 = P(1.05)^(10)

12000 = P(1.62889462677744)

12000 = 1.62889462677744P

1.62889462677744P = 12000

P = 12000/1.62889462677744

P = 7366.95904248911

P = 7366.96

6 0
3 years ago
For which function and interval can the extreme value theorem be applied?
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
The company A produces products a, and the company B produces products b. It is known that 3 percent of companies that produce p
jeka94

Answer:

0.00183

Step-by-step explanation:

The two companies produce different products and the chance to go bankrupt will be different based on the product made. So, the probability of the company A and B to go bankrupt is independent.  

To find the answer of this question, we just need to multiply the probability to go bankrupt of each company. The calculation will be:

P(A=bankrupt) * P(B=bankrupt)= 3% * 6.1% =0.183%= 0.00183

5 0
3 years ago
Find the volume of a cylinder with a diameter if 10 cm and a height of 10 cm?​
RideAnS [48]

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of cylinder=π(d/2)²h=π/4×10²×10=250πcm³

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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