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Serga [27]
2 years ago
10

Those are the answer choices! ^

Mathematics
2 answers:
dybincka [34]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

I think its c bc (PEMDAS) shoes multiplication comes first

Vera_Pavlovna [14]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

I also think it's. C

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G(x) =3x-1 find g(-4)
ira [324]
First plug in -4 for g to get 3(-4)-1. 3(-4) equals -12, and -12-1 equals -13.
6 0
3 years ago
Based on the table, which best predicts the end<br> behavior of the graph of f(x)?
Iteru [2.4K]

Answer:

approaching negative infinity

Step-by-step explanation:

Since as x increases, the values of f(x) are approaching infinity, the function approaches negative infinity as the end behavior.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the cosine of the angle between the planes x+y+z=0 and 4x+3y+z=1.<br><br> Answer: cosθ=
marta [7]

The angle between the planes is the same as the angle between their normal vectors, which are

<em>n</em><em>₁</em> = ⟨1, 1, 1⟩

<em>n</em><em>₂</em> = ⟨4, 3, 1⟩

The angle <em>θ</em> between the vectors is such that

⟨1, 1, 1⟩ • ⟨4, 3, 1⟩ = ||⟨1, 1, 1⟩|| ||⟨4, 3, 1⟩|| cos(<em>θ</em>)

Solve for cos(<em>θ</em>) :

4 + 3 + 1 = √(1² + 1² + 1²) √(4² + 3² + 1²) cos(<em>θ</em>)

8 = √3 √26 cos(<em>θ</em>)

cos(<em>θ</em>) = 8/√78

4 0
2 years ago
Solve the given initial-value problem. the de is of the form dy dx = f(ax + by + c), which is given in (5) of section 2.5. dy dx
shutvik [7]

\dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}=\cos(x+y)

Let v=x+y, so that \dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}-1=\dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}:

\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}=\cos v+1

Now the ODE is separable, and we have

\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=\mathrm dx

Integrating both sides gives

\displaystyle\int\frac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=\int\mathrm dx

For the integral on the left, rewrite the integrand as

\dfrac1{1+\cos v}\cdot\dfrac{1-\cos v}{1-\cos v}=\dfrac{1-\cos v}{1-\cos^2v}=\csc^2v-\csc v\cot v

Then

\displaystyle\int\frac{\mathrm dv}{1+\cos v}=-\cot v+\csc v+C

and so

\csc v-\cot v=x+C

\csc(x+y)-\cot(x+y)=x+C

Given that y(0)=\dfrac\pi2, we find

\csc\left(0+\dfrac\pi2\right)-\cot\left(0+\dfrac\pi2\right)=0+C\implies C=1

so that the particular solution to this IVP is

\csc(x+y)-\cot(x+y)=x+1

5 0
3 years ago
Help me!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Natalka [10]
15!!! is the answer to your question:)
3 0
2 years ago
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