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charle [14.2K]
3 years ago
15

An aneurism refers to?

Physics
1 answer:
Alona [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is a blocked blood vessel.

Explanation:

Hope this helped Mark BRAINLIEST!!!

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A car is driving at 85 km/h and the driver spots a stop sign ahead. What coefficient of friction is needed to stop the car at th
almond37 [142]

Answer:

μ = 0.0315

Explanation:

Since the car moves on a horizontal surface, if we sum forces equal to zero on the Y-axis, we can determine the value of the normal force exerted by the ground on the vehicle. This force is equal to the weight of the cart (product of its mass by gravity)

N = m*g (1)

The friction force is equal to the product of the normal force by the coefficient of friction.

F = μ*N (2)

This way replacing 1 in 2, we have:

F = μ*m*g (2)

Using the theorem of work and energy, which tells us that the sum of the potential and kinetic energies and the work done on a body is equal to the final kinetic energy of the body. We can determine an equation that relates the frictional force to the initial speed of the carriage, so we will determine the coefficient of friction.

\frac{1}{2} *m*v_{i}^{2}-(F*d)=  \frac{1}{2} *m*v_{f}^{2}

where:

vf = final velocity = 0

vi = initial velocity = 85 [km/h] = 23.61 [m/s]

d = displacement = 900 [m]

F = friction force [N]

The final velocity is zero since when the vehicle has traveled 900 meters its velocity is zero.

Now replacing:

(1/2)*m*(23.61)^2 = μ*m*g*d

0.5*(23.61)^2 = μ*9,81*900

μ = 0.0315

5 0
3 years ago
Which statement is true about the part of the electromagnetic spectrum that human eyes can detect?
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

A. it contains ultraviolet, visible, and infrared light

4 1
3 years ago
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which phenomenon is most directly responsible for earth’s magnetic field? Earth spinning on its axis. The moon's gravitational p
Scorpion4ik [409]
Earth spinning on its axis
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4 years ago
A) Is it possible for an object that, object with zero acceleration have velocity? If yes give an example if not give its proof.
sveticcg [70]

Answer:

Yes, in case of uniform velocity

Explanation:

This is the case of uniform velocity. If a body covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time, then the velocity of a body is said to be ‘Uniform Velocity’. It meas that the velocity of a body remains constant during the motion and it does not change.

Since, acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity.

Therefore, if there is no change in velocity or in other words the change in velocity is zero, then the acceleration is also zero.

a = ΔV/t = 0/t

a = 0 m/s²

So, the acceleration of the body is 0 m/s², but it has a uniform velocity

<u>Hence, it is possible for an object that, object with zero acceleration have velocity, which is the case case of uniform velocity.</u>

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