Answer:
See below
Explanation:
At point A the PE = mgh = 2 * 10 * 1 = 20 J
at point B, all of the PE , 20 J , is converted to Kinetic Energy
KE = 1/2 m v^2
20 = 1/2 (2)(v^2 )
20 = v^2 v = sqrt 20 = 4.47 m/s
for the friction part
vf = vo t + 1/2 a t^2 vf = final velocity = 0 (stopped)
vo = original velocity = 4.47 m/s
a = -1 m/s^2
0 = 4.47 t + 1/2 (-1) t^2
- .5t^2 + 4.47 t = 0
t ( -.5t+ 4.47) = 0 shows t = 4.47/.5 = 8.9 seconds
Answer:
a) 19.2 s
b) No
Explanation:
Given:
v₀ = 125 m/s
a = -6.5 m/s²
v = 0 m/s
a) Find: t
v = at + v₀
(0 m/s) = (-6.5 m/s²) t + (125 m/s)
t ≈ 19.2 s
b) Find: Δx
v² = v₀² + 2aΔx
(0 m/s)² = (125 m/s)² + 2 (-6.5 m/s²) Δx
Δx ≈ 1200 m
An aircraft carrier that's 850 meters long won't be long enough.
None of the lenses on that list is a converting lens.
None are converging either.
Answer:
Explanation:
Mechanical Advantage = Outputforce / inputForce
outputforce = 400 X 3 = 1200
Mechanical Advantage = 1200 / 100
MA = 12
Answer:
Explanation:
circumference of the tyre = 2πr = 2 x 3.14 x 0.26 = 1.6328m
76000km = 76000000m
no of revolutions required
= 76000000/1.6328 = 46546 revolutions.
