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3 years ago

Number 、

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sav [38]3 years ago

6 0

Y = 15x + 50
85 = 15x + 50
35 = 15x
X = 2.3333
X= 2 hours

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The diameter of a wheel from a bicycle is 66 CM about how far will the wheel travel in one turn

castortr0y [4]

Answer:

If the outside diameter of the wheel is 66cm, it will travel 1 wheel circumference. Circumference is Pi x diameter = 3.14 x 66 = 207.24 cm.Step-by-step

Explanation:

If the diameter is of the wheel (without the tire) you need to calculate the actual diameter from the outermost edge of the tire.

8 0

2 years ago

Help I just not that smart

Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

$1\frac{1}{9}$ gallons of paint

Step-by-step explanation:

paint =

2/3 ---- 3/5

x ---- 1

$x = \frac{\frac{2}{3} }{\frac{3}{5} } =\frac{(2)(5)}{(3)(3)} =\frac{10}{9}$

$x=1\frac{1}{9}$

Hope this helps

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Given: KL ║ NM , LM = 45, m∠M = 50° KN ⊥ NM , NL ⊥ LM Find: KN and KL

Mice21 [21]

Answer:

$KL=45\tan 50^{\circ}\sin 50^{\circ}\approx 41.08\\ \\KN=45\sin 50^{\circ}\approx 34.47$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

KL ║ NM ,

LM = 45

m∠M = 50°

KN ⊥ NM

NL ⊥ LM

Find: KN and KL

1. Consider triangle NLM. This is a right triangle, because NL ⊥ LM. In this triangle,

LM = 45

m∠M = 50°

So,

$\tan \angle M=\dfrac{\text{opposite leg}}{\text{adjacent leg}}=\dfrac{NL}{LM}=\dfrac{NL}{45}\\ \\NL=45\tan 50^{\circ}$

Also

$m\angle LNM=90^{\circ}-50^{\circ}=40^{\circ}$ (angles LNM and M are complementary).

2. Consider triangle NKL. This is a right triangle, because KN ⊥ NM . In this triangle,

$NL=45\tan 50^{\circ}$

$m\angle KLN=m\angle LNM=40^{\circ}$ (alternate interior angles)

$m\angle KNL=90^{\circ}-40^{\circ}=50^{\circ}$ (angles KNL and KLN are complementary).

So,

$\sin \angle KNL=\dfrac{\text{opposite leg}}{\text{hypotenuse}}=\dfrac{KL}{LN}=\dfrac{KL}{45\tan 50^{\circ}}\\ \\KL=45\tan 50^{\circ}\sin 50^{\circ}\approx 41.08$

and

$\cos \angle KNL=\dfrac{\text{adjacent leg}}{\text{hypotenuse}}=\dfrac{KN}{LN}=\dfrac{KN}{45\tan 50^{\circ}}\\ \\KN=45\tan 50^{\circ}\cos 50^{\circ}=45\sin 50^{\circ}\approx 34.47$

3 0

3 years ago

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What is the answer to the question

Minchanka [31]

D'
you can't use the same single letter to mark a new point.

3 0

3 years ago

Segment AB has endpoints A(–4, 6) and B(1, 4). After a dilation, centered at the origin, the image of A is (–6, 9). Without meas

Ksivusya [100]

With A and its image one can get the dilation factor;
That is dilation scale factor = -6/-4 or 9/6 = 3/2
Therefore, to get the image of B we multiply the coordinates of B by the dilation factor;
(1,4) 3/2 = (1.5, 6)
Thus the image of B = (1.5,6)

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers