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Deffense [45]
3 years ago
9

Which card on the bottom is the statement and which 3 cards are the reasons?

Mathematics
1 answer:
kenny6666 [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: ↓↓↓

Step-by-step explanation:

1. EF || HG, HE || FG

2. Reflexive Property

3. Alternate Interior Angles

4. SAS

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Compare the values of each 3 in the number 633,248
ipn [44]
633,248.
The difference of each 3 is that they have different place values.
The 3 on the right side is int he 1000s (thousands) place, and the 3 on the left is in the 10,000s (ten thousands) place. :) 

The one in the 10,000s place is 10 times larger than the one in the 1,000s place!
6 0
3 years ago
Find the missing side, then, round to the nearest tenth.<br> Looking for help with this problem!
jeka94

Answer:

4.6 = x the side opposite C would be 6.1

Step-by-step explanation:

you can use law of sine

you know you have a right triangle so the missing angle B = 49

4/sin41=x/sin49

4 0
3 years ago
What does this mean? and how can y =x or what us the answer to y=x I need help
Readme [11.4K]
At the end of the directions, it talks about parallel, perpendicular, or neither. When x=y, the lines are perpendicular and have infinite solutions. When they are parallel, there is no solution. You'll get an answer like 4=5. Neither means there is only one answer, and you will get one x and one y.
7 0
3 years ago
−5y+3x=3<br> −8y+9x=−12<br> ​<br> What is X and Y please.
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

( -4, -3 )

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve by elimination. Reason being there are no variables without coefficients.

−5y+3x=3     Multiply equation by 3. Each term.  

−8y+9x=−12

-15y + 9x = 9       Subtract the to equations

-8y  + 9x = -12

___________

-7y = 21

y = -3

Substitute y into original equation

-5(-3) + 3x = 3

15 + 3x = 3            Subtract 15 both sides

3x = -12                 Divide by 3, both sides

x = -4

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A fair coin is continually flipped until heads appears for the 10th time. Let X denote the number of tails that occur. Compute t
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

The probability mass function is expressed as:

P(x) = [(x+r-1)C(r-1)]*[p^r]*[(1-p)^x]

Step-by-step explanation:

This is not a binomial distribution. It is actually a negative binomial distribution. The probability mass function is expressed below:

P(x) = [(x+r-1)C(r-1)]*[p^r]*[(1-p)^x]

where:

x = number of failures

r-1 = number of successes (10 in this scenario)

p = probability of a success

nCr = n!/[r!(n-r)!]

The main formula difference in the positive binomial versus negative binomial is this: With respect to the negative binomial, it is obviously  known that the last event will be: when we reach our 10th "head", we stop .

Thus, the last flip will ALWAYS be a "head".

5 0
3 years ago
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