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vladimir1956 [14]
3 years ago
10

40% of 36 can somone tell me what it is or how to do it because i am struggling

Mathematics
2 answers:
steposvetlana [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

40/100*36

40*36/100

1440/100

14.4

so here if u divide 40% by 100 the % sign will automarically removed and here 40% 0f 36 means 40 and to remove % sign divide it by 100 and multply it by 36

Karolina [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

14.4

Step-by-step explanation:

To find 40 percent of 36, here's how I do it. Just divide 36 by one hundred (move the decimal point two times to the left), giving you 0.36. Then multiply that by 40, and you get 14.4! Of course, there are multiple ways to do it, but that's just mine. If it doesn't work for you, try and search some formulas.

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Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

r ≤ 29, r-5

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Step-by-step explanation:

Amount to spend = $24

Regular price = r

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The regular price will be $5, at the max, more than the amount Roopesh has to spend.

The sale price will be $24 or less than that for Roopesh to afford.

Inequality for regular price:

r-5 ≤ 24

r ≤ 29

So, the product Roopesh can afford is $29 or less than that.

What is the unknown? r ≤ 29

Following expression can represent the sale price:

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The sale price can be compared with the regular price with the following:

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3 0
3 years ago
When making a long distance call from a certain pay phone, the first three minutes of a call cost $2.10. After that, each additi
Sauron [17]

Answer: the number of minutes of long distance call that one can make is lesser than or equal to 12 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x represent the number of minutes of long distance call that one makes.

The first three minutes of a call cost $2.10. After that, each additional minute or portion of a minute of that call cost $0.45. This means that if x minutes of long distance call is made, the total cost would be

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Therefore, the inequality to find the number of minutes one can call long distance for $6.15 is expressed as

2.10 + 0.45(x - 3) ≤ 6.15

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