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stiv31 [10]
2 years ago
15

On January 1, 2021, Pine Corporation signed a five-year noncancelable lease for equipment. The terms of the lease called for Pin

e to make annual payments of $800,000 at the beginning of each year for five years beginning on January 1, 2021 with the title passing to Pine at the end of this period. The equipment has an estimated useful life of 7 years and no salvage value. Pine uses the straight- line method of depreciation for all of its fixed assets. Pine accordingly accounts for this lease transaction as a finance lease. The lease payments were determined to have a present value of $3,335,888 at an effective interest rate of 10%. In 2021, Pine should record interest expense of:______.
a. 333,589
b. 253,589
c. 466,411
d. 546,411
Business
1 answer:
sweet [91]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

b. 253,589

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows,

Present value of lease payment = $3,335,888

Payment in 2021 = $800,000

Interest rate =   10%

So, we can calculate the interest expense by using following formula,

Interest expense = (Present value of lease payment - Payment in 2021 ) × interest rate

Interest expense = ($3,335,888 - $800,000) × 10%

= $2,535,888 × 10%

= $253,588.8 or $253,589

In 2021, Pine should record interest expense of $253,589

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C. They often suffer from a lack of understanding regarding the team's purpose.

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Answer: India / 11.1years

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Perdue Company purchased equipment on April 1, 2014, for $270,000. The equipment was expected to have a useful life of three yea
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Answer:

<u>Straight line:</u>

2014 $ 65,250  

2015 $  87,000  

2016 $  87,000  

2017 $   21,750

<u>units-of-output method:</u>

2014 $ 108,750

2015 $   79,750

2016 $  58,000

2017  $   14,500

<u>dobule declining method</u>

2014  135,000  

2015  45,000  

2016  15,000  

2017  9,000  

Explanation:

<u>Straight line:</u>

(cost - salvage value) / useful life

(270,000 - 9,000)/3 = 87,000 per complete year

First year: from April 1st to December 31th

87,000 x 9/12 = 65,250

Second and third year are complete year thus, 87,000

fourth year: from Jan 1st to March 31th:

87,000 x 3/12 = 21,750

<u>units-of-output method:</u>

(cost - salvage value) / unit of output

261,000 / 18,000 = 14.5 per hour

We multiply each year hours by this rate

7,500 x 14.5 = 108,750

5,500x 14.5 =   79,750

4,000x 14.5 =   58,000

1,000 x 14.5 =   14,500

<em><u>double declining </u></em>

we multiply by twice the rate of of straight line:

1/3 x 2 = 2/3 we depreciate this amount of the carrying vbalue per year

Last year we adjust to obtain the residual value

Year   Beginning   Rate   Dep expense   Carrying value

2014     270,000     0.50     135,000     135,000  

2015     135,000     0.67     90,000     45,000  

2016     45,000     0.67     30,000     15,000  

2017     15,000                6,000      9,000  

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Explanation:

Given the details in the question, the cost of preferred capital can be calculated using the CAPM method.

Cost of preferred stock using the Capital Asset Pricing Model is:

= Risk free rate + Beta * ( Market return - Risk free rate)

= 4% + 1.23 * (14% - 4%)

= 16.3%

7 0
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