Answer:
61
Step-by-step explanation:
154 * 2/5 = 61.6
True because you can multiply a number to get 40 such as 8 which means 5 was helped to get 40. So that is why 5 is a multiple
Hi there
The formula of the future value of annuity ordinary is
Fv=pmt [(1+r)^(n)-1)÷r]
Solve the formula for n
Fv/pmt=(1+r)^(n)-1)÷r
cross multiplication
(Fv/pmt)×r=(1+r)^(n)-1
(Fv/pmt)×r+1=(1+r)^(n)
take the log for both sides
Log ((Fv/pmt)×r+1)=n×log (1+r)
Divide each side by log (1+r)
N=[Log ((Fv/pmt)×r+1)]÷log (1+r)
Now solve to find n
N=log((11,000÷200)×0.02+1)
÷log(1+0.02)
=37.47 years round your answer to get 37 years
Good luck!
Answer:
they can ride 20 rides with the 40 dollars you just have to dived 40 by 2