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Simora [160]
3 years ago
10

Simplify the expression csc(-x)/1+tan^2x)

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nikolay [14]3 years ago
6 0
\bf 1+tan^2(\theta)=sec^2(\theta)\qquad \qquad sin(-\theta )=-sin(\theta )
\\\\\\
cot(\theta)=\cfrac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}
\qquad 
csc(\theta)=\cfrac{1}{sin(\theta)}
\qquad 
sec(\theta)=\cfrac{1}{cos(\theta)}\\\\
-------------------------------

\bf \cfrac{csc(-x)}{1+tan^2(x)}\implies \cfrac{\frac{1}{sin(-x)}}{sec^2(x)}\implies \cfrac{-\frac{1}{sin(x)}}{\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}}\implies -\cfrac{1}{sin(x)}\cdot \cfrac{cos^2(x)}{1}
\\\\\\
-cos(x)\cdot \cfrac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}\implies -cos(x)cot(x)
Charra [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0
Assuming ya meant \frac{csc(-x)}{1+tan^2(x)}

to slimplify, we use a variation of the pythagorean identity and a decomposition into the sin and cos


for the pythaogreaon identity
cos^2(x)+sin^2(x)=1
divide both sides by cos^2(x)
1+tan^2(x)=sec^2(x) since \frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}=tan(x)
subsitute
\frac{csc(x)}{sec^2(x)}

recall that csc(x)=\frac{1}{cos(x)}
also that cos(x) is an even function and thus cos(-x)=cos(x)
therfore csc(-x)=\frac{1}{cos(-x)}=\frac{1}{cos(x)}=csc(x)
so we get

\frac{csc(x)}{sec^2(x)}
decompose them into \frac{1}{cos(x)} and \frac{1}{sin^2(x)} to get \frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)}}{\frac{1}{sin^2(x)}}
multiply by \frac{sin^2(x)}{sin^2(x)} to get
\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos(x)}
we can furthur simlify to get
(\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)})(sin(x))=tan(x)sin(x)
the expression simplifies to tan(x)sin(x)
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