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Gnoma [55]
3 years ago
5

Yuhhhhhh let’s get into it

Business
2 answers:
Angelina_Jolie [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

into what exactly?

Explanation:

alexandr402 [8]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Get it to it

Explanation:

yuh

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When a firm can _____ its capital equipment over a shorter period, it cuts its taxes _____. appreciate; later appreciate; now de
Andre45 [30]

When a firm can depreciate its capital equipment over a shorter period, it cuts its taxes now.

A capital asset's value dropping is referred to as capital depreciation. To determine the recovery cost incurred on fixed assets over the course of their useful lives, assets are depreciated. When the asset reaches the end of its useful life or you need to sell it, this is used as a sinking fund to replace it. Depreciation lowers the taxable income, which lowers the tax burden. Capital assets are listed as an asset on the balance sheet and are depreciated over the course of their useful lives. Businesses typically have to spread out the costs of capital investments over a number of years in accordance with predetermined depreciation schedules.

More about depreciation brainly.com/question/15178885

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8 0
2 years ago
Riverside Ranch is a horse breeding facility. Dynasty Stables is a customer looking for a new stallion for its breeding program.
marshall27 [118]

Answer: a. an express warranty

Explanation:

An EXPRESS WARRANTY refers to spoken or written promises or guarantees made by the seller about the performance of a product when negotiating with a buyer.

For example, "this product is guaranteed against wear and tear for at least 2 years".

Roy Mustang in this scenario made an explicit promise about the effectiveness of the Stallion and as such that constitutes an EXPRESS warranty.

It is worthy of note that for Express Warranties, the word Warranty does not even need to be included for the promise to be a warranty.

5 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of handcrafted wine racks has determined that the cost to produce x units per month is given by upper c equals 0.
Fantom [35]

Answer:

The cost per month is increasing at a rate $365.

Explanation:

Differentiation Formula

  • \frac{d}{dx}(x^n)= nx^{n-1}  
  • \frac{d}{dx}(a)=0             [ where a is a constant]
  • \frac{d}{dx}(ax^n)=a \frac{d}{dx}(x^n)= anx^{n-1}

Given that,

A manufacturer of handcrafted wine racks has determined that the cost to produce x units per month is given by

c=0.2x^2+10,000.

Again given that,

the rate of changing production is 13 unit per month

i.e \frac{dx}{dt}=13

To find the cost per month, we need to find out the value \frac{dc}{dt} when production is changing at the rate 13 units per month and the production is 70 units.

c=0.2x^2+10,000

Differentiating with respect to t

\frac{d}{dt}(c)=\frac{d}{dt}(0.2x^2)+\frac{d}{dx}(10,000)

\Rightarrow \frac{dc}{dt}=0.2\frac{d}{dt}(x^2)+\frac{d}{dx}(10,000)

\Rightarrow \frac{dc}{dt}=0.2\times 2x^{2-1}\frac{dx}{dt}+0

\Rightarrow \frac{dc}{dt}=0.4x\frac{dx}{dt}

Plugging \frac{dx}{dt}=13

\Rightarrow \frac{dc}{dt}=0.4x\times 13

\Rightarrow \frac{dc}{dt}=5.2x

\frac{dc}{dt}|_{x=70}=5.2\times 70 [ plugging x=70]

            =364

[ The unit of c is not given. Assume that the unit of c is dollar.]

The cost per month is increasing at a rate $365.

4 0
3 years ago
Both Bond Sam and Bond Dave have 7.3 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Sam has three
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

Sam change:   -5.13%

Dave change -18.01%

Explanation:

If interest rate increase by 2%

then the YTM of the bond will be 9.3%

We need eto calcualte the present value of  the coupon and maturity of the bond at this new rate:

<em><u>For the coupon payment we use the formula for ordinary annuity</u></em>

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Coupon payment: 1,000 x 7.3% / 2 payment per year: 36.50

time 6 (3 years x 2 payment per year)

YTM seiannual: 0.0465 (9.3% annual /2 = 4.65% semiannual)

36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-6} }{0.0465} = PV\\

PV $187.3546

<u><em>For the maturity we calculate usign the lump sum formula:</em></u>

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity: $ 1,000.00

time: 6 payment

rate: 0.0465

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{6} } = PV  

PV   761.32

Now, we add both together:

PV coupon $187.3546 + PV maturity  $761.3154 = $948.6700

now we calcualte the change in percentage:

948.67/1,000 - 1 = -0.051330026 = -5.13

For Dave we do the same:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 36.50

time 40

rate 0.0465

36.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0465)^{-40} }{0.0465} = PV\\

PV $657.5166

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   40.00

rate  0.0465

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0465)^{40} } = PV  

PV   162.34

PV c $657.5166

PV m  $162.3419

Total $819.8585

Change:

819.86 / 1,000 - 1 = -0.180141521 = -18.01%

6 0
3 years ago
What actions would the fomc likely take if it were to pursue contractionary monetary policy using open market operations?.
tamaranim1 [39]

The key movements via are to increase the economy consist of a decreased bargain fee, buying government securities, and a decreased reserve ratio.

<h3>When the Fed makes use of contractionary policy?</h3>

When GDP in a kingdom is growing too fast, inflicting inflation to grow past a suited charge of two%, central banks will put in force a contractionary economic coverage. The Federal Reserve, or any principal financial institution, has three primary pieces of equipment to reduce the money supply.

A direct advantage of contractionary economic coverage is that it strengthens government budgets. As an instance, whilst the Fed's bargain price increases, the government earns extra cash from the banks that borrow budget from the Fed's cut price window. The government can use this supply of sales to offset spending and decrease price range deficits.

Learn more about contractionary monetary policy here brainly.com/question/27500362

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3 0
2 years ago
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